HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Practice Exam
1. A female client makes routine visits to a neighborhood community health center. The nurse notes that this client often presents with facial bruising, particularly around the eyes. The nurse discusses prevention of domestic violence with the client even though the client does not admit to being battered. What level of prevention has the nurse applied in this situation?
- A. primary prevention
- B. secondary prevention
- C. tertiary prevention
- D. health promotion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves identifying and addressing issues early to prevent further harm. In this scenario, the nurse is intervening by discussing domestic violence prevention with the client who is showing signs of facial bruising, aiming to prevent further harm even though the client has not disclosed being battered. Choice A (primary prevention) focuses on preventing the onset of a problem before it occurs, like educating about healthy relationships before violence happens. Choice C (tertiary prevention) involves managing and treating the effects of a problem that has already occurred, such as providing counseling to a domestic violence survivor. Choice D (health promotion) aims to enhance well-being and prevent health problems through educational and environmental interventions, which may include aspects of preventing domestic violence, but in this case, the nurse's direct intervention is more about early identification and prevention of harm, aligning it with secondary prevention.
2. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following laboratory values?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Serum potassium
- C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- D. White blood cell count (WBC)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, including factors II, VII, IX, and X. Monitoring the PT helps ensure that the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range to prevent complications such as recurrent DVT or excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because serum potassium, blood urea nitrogen, and white blood cell count are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with a history of DVT.
3. The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old child with a greenstick fracture. In explaining this type of fracture to the parents, the best response by the nurse should be that
- A. A child's bone is more flexible and can be bent 45 degrees before breaking
- B. Bones of children are more porous than adults and often have incomplete breaks
- C. Compression of porous bones produces a buckle or torus type break
- D. Bone fragments often remain attached by a periosteal hinge
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Greenstick fractures are common in children because their bones are softer and more porous than adult bones, leading to incomplete breaks when force is applied. Choice A is incorrect as greenstick fractures are not due to bone flexibility but rather the porous nature of children's bones. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a buckle or torus type break, which is not characteristic of a greenstick fracture. Choice D is incorrect as greenstick fractures do not involve bone fragments remaining attached by a periosteal hinge.
4. A person with no known illness whose daily routine consists of walking and following a healthy diet would be best characterized as engaging in which kind of activities?
- A. health balance
- B. disease prevention
- C. health promotion
- D. self-fulfillment
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: health promotion. Health promotion activities involve maintaining a healthy lifestyle to prevent illness. In this scenario, the person is actively engaging in behaviors that promote their overall health and well-being, such as walking and following a healthy diet. Choice A, 'health balance,' is vague and does not specifically address the proactive nature of the person's actions. Choice B, 'disease prevention,' while related, focuses more on specific actions taken to prevent diseases rather than the broader concept of promoting overall health. Choice D, 'self-fulfillment,' does not directly relate to the activities described in the question.
5. What title should be given to this professional role in occupational health? A registered nurse who develops researchable questions, conducts research, and communicates the findings to occupational and environmental health professionals, other peers, and the public.
- A. manager
- B. researcher
- C. clinician/practitioner
- D. health promotion specialist
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: researcher.' In this context, the individual is primarily involved in developing research questions, conducting research, and disseminating findings, which aligns with the responsibilities of a researcher. Choice 'A: manager' is incorrect because the role described does not primarily involve managerial duties. Choice 'C: clinician/practitioner' is also incorrect as the focus is on research activities rather than direct clinical practice. Choice 'D: health promotion specialist' does not encompass the full scope of responsibilities described in the scenario.
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