the main focus of secondary prevention is
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Nursing Elites

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Community Health HESI Exam

1. What is the main focus of secondary prevention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The main focus of secondary prevention is early detection and treatment of disease. This approach aims to identify health conditions in their early stages when they are easier to treat or manage effectively. Choice B, rehabilitation, is more aligned with restoring function after an illness or injury has occurred. Choice C, health promotion, concentrates on educating and empowering individuals to adopt healthy behaviors to prevent the onset of diseases. Choice D, palliative care, is focused on providing comfort and improving the quality of life for individuals with serious illnesses or at the end of life, rather than on early detection and treatment.

2. Which of the following is a major focus of tertiary prevention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Reducing the impact of an ongoing illness.' Tertiary prevention aims to minimize the effects of a disease or condition that is already established. Choices A, 'Preventing the onset of disease,' and B, 'Early detection and treatment,' are aspects of primary and secondary prevention, respectively. Choice D, 'Health education,' is more related to promoting awareness and knowledge rather than specifically focusing on reducing the impact of an ongoing illness.

3. While assessing an Rh-positive newborn whose mother is Rh-negative, the nurse recognizes the risk for hyperbilirubinemia. Which of the following should be reported immediately?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum bilirubin level of 12 mg/dL in a newborn is concerning and can indicate a significant risk of hyperbilirubinemia, which requires immediate medical intervention to prevent complications like kernicterus. Jaundice at 26 hours (Choice A) is a symptom, not a laboratory result, and needs monitoring but not an immediate report. Hematocrit of 55% (Choice B) may be elevated but is not indicative of hyperbilirubinemia. A positive Coombs test (Choice D) indicates the presence of antibodies on the newborn's red blood cells but does not directly correlate with the risk of hyperbilirubinemia.

4. What is an important basis in preparing the family health care plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In preparing a family health care plan, it is crucial to consider the needs and problems as perceived and accepted by the family members themselves. This ensures that the plan aligns with the family's beliefs, values, and preferences, leading to better acceptance and adherence. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the active involvement and acceptance of the family in recognizing their needs and problems are essential for effective health care planning.

5. During the beginning shift assessment of a client with asthma who is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute, the nurse would be most concerned about which unreported finding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rapid, shallow respirations with intermittent wheezes are concerning as they indicate a potential worsening of the client's asthma. This finding suggests airway narrowing, which can lead to respiratory failure. Immediate intervention is required to address this respiratory distress. A pulse oximetry reading of 89% is low and indicates hypoxemia, but the respiratory pattern described in option C takes priority as it directly reflects the client's respiratory status. Crackles at the base of the lungs suggest fluid accumulation, which is important but not as immediately critical as the respiratory distress in asthma. Excessive thirst and a dry cracked tongue may indicate dehydration, which is relevant but not as urgent as the respiratory compromise presented in option C.

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