a client comes into the community health center upset and crying stating i will die of cancer now that i have this disease and then the client hands t
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Community Health HESI Exam

1. A client comes into the community health center upset and crying stating, “I will die of cancer now that I have this disease.” And then the client hands the nurse a paper with one word written on it: 'Pheochromocytoma.' Which response should the nurse state initially?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct initial response for the nurse to provide in this situation is to offer reassurance. Stating that 'Pheochromocytomas usually aren't cancerous (malignant)' helps to alleviate the client's anxiety and fear of having cancer. This response also establishes a foundation for further discussion about the condition, allowing the nurse to address the client's concerns and provide accurate information. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses solely on the diagnostic tests for pheochromocytoma but does not address the client's emotional distress. Choice C is incorrect as it discusses imaging modalities without directly addressing the client's concerns. Choice D is also incorrect as it assumes symptoms without first addressing the client's emotional state and fear of cancer.

2. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following laboratory values?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, including factors II, VII, IX, and X. Monitoring the PT helps ensure that the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range to prevent complications such as recurrent DVT or excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because serum potassium, blood urea nitrogen, and white blood cell count are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with a history of DVT.

3. A nurse working in a community health setting is performing primary health screenings. Which individual is at highest risk for contracting an HIV infection?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners is at the highest risk for contracting an HIV infection due to engaging in risky sexual behavior with multiple partners, increasing the likelihood of exposure to the virus. Choice B is less risky as the individual has had a relatively lower number of sexual partners in the past year. Choice C, although involving drug use, does not directly correlate with a higher risk of contracting HIV unless needles are shared. Choice D, a 34-year-old male homosexual in a monogamous relationship, has a lower risk compared to choice A as long as the relationship remains monogamous.

4. What action is best for the community health nurse to take if the nurse suspects that an infant is being physically abused?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a community health nurse suspects that an infant is being physically abused, the best course of action is to follow agency protocols to report the suspected abuse. This is essential to ensure that the appropriate authorities are informed, and proper interventions can be initiated. Reporting suspicions to the local child abuse reporting hotline (Choice B) can be a part of the agency protocols but may not cover all necessary steps. Educating the child's caregivers about growth and development (Choice C) is not appropriate in cases of suspected abuse, as the immediate focus should be on the safety and well-being of the infant. Calling the police department to have the child removed from the home (Choice D) is not the primary role of the nurse; the proper authorities should handle the removal process after an investigation.

5. Which one of the following statements, if made by the client, indicates teaching about Inderal (propranolol) has been effective?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Stopping Inderal (propranolol) abruptly can cause rebound hypertension, angina, and even a myocardial infarction (heart attack), so it is crucial to taper off the medication under medical supervision. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the serious consequences associated with abrupt discontinuation of propranolol.

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