Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. What instruction should the practical nurse (PN) include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Take the medication with meals to decrease gastrointestinal upset.
• B. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• C. Avoid alcohol while taking the medication.
• D. Take the medication with meals to increase absorption.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed metformin is to take the medication with a full glass of water. This helps ensure proper ingestion and absorption of the medication. While taking metformin with meals can help reduce gastrointestinal side effects, the primary focus should be on adequate hydration and absorption by taking it with water. Avoiding alcohol while taking metformin is also important as alcohol can increase the risk of lactic acidosis when combined with metformin. Taking the medication with meals to increase absorption is incorrect as metformin should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset, not to increase absorption.

2. A postoperative client has a prescription for ketorolac 30mg IV q6h. Which response demonstrates that therapeutic levels of the medication have been achieved?

• A. Observe wound drainage for a change in appearance
• B. Assess the client's calves for inflammation
• C. Perform a pain assessment using a numeric scale
• D. Measure the client's intake and output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to perform a pain assessment using a numeric scale. Ketorolac is an NSAID prescribed for pain relief. Monitoring pain levels is crucial to evaluate the therapeutic effectiveness of the medication. Pain assessment helps determine if the medication is providing adequate pain relief, indicating that therapeutic levels have been achieved.

3. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed apixaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Increased risk of bleeding
• B. Decreased risk of bleeding
• C. Increased risk of infection
• D. Decreased risk of infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of bleeding. Apixaban is an anticoagulant medication that works by preventing blood clots. While this is beneficial for individuals with a history of deep vein thrombosis, it also increases the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, or blood in the urine or stool. Monitoring for bleeding is crucial to ensure the client's safety and to take appropriate actions if necessary. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because apixaban does not decrease the risk of bleeding, increase the risk of infection, or decrease the risk of infection. The primary concern when administering apixaban is monitoring for potential bleeding complications.

4. A client with severe depression is prescribed sertraline. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

• A. I can stop taking this medication once I feel better.
• B. It may take 1 to 4 weeks to notice improvement in symptoms.
• C. I should avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• D. I should take this medication in the morning with food.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients should not stop taking sertraline abruptly once they feel better without consulting their healthcare provider. It is important to complete the full course of treatment as prescribed to prevent a relapse of symptoms. Stopping the medication suddenly can lead to withdrawal symptoms and may worsen the condition. Choice B is correct because sertraline may take 1 to 4 weeks to show noticeable improvement in symptoms. Choice C is correct as alcohol should be avoided while taking sertraline due to the increased risk of side effects. Choice D is also correct as taking sertraline in the morning with food can help reduce gastrointestinal side effects.

5. A practical nurse (PN) is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of furosemide to a client. Which laboratory value is most important for the PN to review before administering the medication?

• A. Serum calcium level
• B. Serum potassium level
• C. Serum sodium level
• D. Serum magnesium level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to review the client's serum potassium level before administering furosemide. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to hypokalemia, making it crucial to assess potassium levels to prevent potential complications like cardiac arrhythmias associated with low potassium levels.

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