a client whose seizure disorder has been managed with phenytoin is admitted to the emergency department with status epilepticus which drug should the
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Pharmacology HESI 2023 Quizlet

1. A client whose seizure disorder has been managed with phenytoin is admitted to the emergency department with status epilepticus. Which drug should the practical nurse anticipate being prescribed for administration to treat these seizures?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, which is a life-threatening condition of prolonged seizures, rapid intervention is crucial. Diazepam is the drug of choice for treating status epilepticus due to its fast onset of action and effectiveness in stopping seizures. It acts by enhancing the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA to suppress seizure activity quickly. Phenytoin, although used for long-term seizure control, has a slower onset of action and is not the first-line medication for managing status epilepticus.

2. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed sulfasalazine. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the client's teaching plan regarding sulfasalazine is to take the medication with meals. Taking sulfasalazine with food helps to minimize gastrointestinal upset, which is a common side effect of the medication. Choice B is incorrect because avoiding sunlight is not specifically related to sulfasalazine. Choice C is important but not directly related to the administration of sulfasalazine. Choice D is incorrect because sulfasalazine should be taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects.

3. The healthcare provider is evaluating the effectiveness of metaproterenol for how do you know it's been effective?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The effectiveness of metaproterenol, a bronchodilator, is assessed by a decrease in wheezing upon auscultation. Wheezing indicates airway constriction, and a reduction in wheezing signifies improved airflow and bronchodilation due to the medication's action. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the expected outcome of metaproterenol therapy.

4. A client who received a prescription for cyclosporine ophthalmic emulsion for dry eyes asks the practical nurse (PN) if it is safe to continue using artificial tears. What information should the PN provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to allow a 15-minute interval between the administration of cyclosporine and artificial tears. Cyclosporine, an ophthalmic emulsion that increases tear production, can be used in conjunction with artificial tears as long as the products are administered 15 minutes apart. This interval helps to prevent any potential interactions between the two products and ensures optimal effectiveness of cyclosporine for treating dry eyes.

5. A 6-month-old infant is prescribed digoxin for the treatment of congestive heart failure. Which observation by the practical nurse (PN) warrants immediate intervention for signs of digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 60 beats/min for a 6-month-old infant warrants immediate intervention as it falls below the normal range. The normal heart rate for a 6-month-old is 80 to 150 beats/min when awake, and a rate of 70 beats/min while sleeping is considered within normal limits. Bradycardia (heart rate <60 beats/min) in infants can be a sign of digoxin toxicity, necessitating prompt evaluation and intervention to prevent adverse effects. Sweating across the forehead (Choice B) is a non-specific symptom and may not directly indicate digoxin toxicity. Poor sucking effort (Choice C) and a respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min (Choice D) are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity and do not require immediate intervention in the context of this question.

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