Nursing Elites

1. A client whose seizure disorder has been managed with phenytoin is admitted to the emergency department with status epilepticus. Which drug should the practical nurse anticipate being prescribed for administration to treat these seizures?

• A. Phenytoin
• B. Diazepam
• C. Phenobarbital
• D. Carbamazepine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, which is a life-threatening condition of prolonged seizures, rapid intervention is crucial. Diazepam is the drug of choice for treating status epilepticus due to its fast onset of action and effectiveness in stopping seizures. It acts by enhancing the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA to suppress seizure activity quickly. Phenytoin, although used for long-term seizure control, has a slower onset of action and is not the first-line medication for managing status epilepticus.

2. When a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed fondaparinux, the nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Increased risk of bleeding
• B. Decreased risk of bleeding
• C. Increased risk of infection
• D. Decreased risk of infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fondaparinux is an anticoagulant prescribed to prevent blood clots. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for an increased risk of bleeding, which is a potential adverse effect of this medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because fondaparinux does not decrease the risk of bleeding, increase the risk of infection, or decrease the risk of infection. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as unexplained bruising, bleeding gums, or blood in the urine or stool, is crucial when a client is on fondaparinux.

3. A patient with irritable bowel syndrome starts a new prescription for dicyclomine, an anticholinergic medication. The client reports the onset of sensitivity to light and a dry mouth. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Determine if the medication is being taken correctly
• B. Provide instructions on managing these side effects
• C. Schedule an appointment for evaluation by the healthcare provider
• D. Advise stopping the medication until the unpleasant side effects wear off

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is to provide instructions on managing these side effects. Sensitivity to light and dry mouth are common side effects of anticholinergic medications like dicyclomine. It is essential for the nurse to educate the patient on strategies to cope with these side effects, such as staying hydrated to address dry mouth and wearing sunglasses to reduce sensitivity to light. Option A is not the priority as the side effects are expected with this medication and do not necessarily indicate incorrect use. Option C is not immediately necessary as the side effects are common and can be managed without a healthcare provider evaluation. Option D is not recommended unless advised by the healthcare provider as abruptly stopping the medication can lead to worsening symptoms or withdrawal effects.

4. A client who is in the rehabilitation facility with newly diagnosed Parkinson's disease (PD) has levodopa-carbidopa prescribed. During the care planning session for this client, the nurse discusses which aspects with the other members of the health care team? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Ask the dietician to avoid increasing the amounts of foods high in Vitamin B6.
• B. Lessening of tremors
• C. Remind others on the team that this medication will not relieve all symptoms of PD.
• D. Ask the evening shift nurses to give the last dose earlier in the day if the client has insomnia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Levodopa-carbidopa is a medication commonly used in the treatment of Parkinson's disease (PD). It can cause side effects such as hypotension with sudden position changes. To assist the client in managing this side effect, the physical therapy assistant can help avoid sudden position changes. Additionally, if insomnia occurs, adjusting the timing of the last dose earlier in the day can be beneficial. It is important to note that drowsiness can also be a side effect of the medication and should be reported to the nurse. Foods high in Vitamin B6 can interfere with the absorption of levodopa-carbidopa; hence, it is advisable to avoid increasing the consumption of such foods. Lastly, it is crucial to remind the team that while this medication helps alleviate symptoms like tremors, it may not relieve all symptoms of PD comprehensively.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus type 1 is prescribed insulin glargine. When should the nurse instruct the client to administer this medication?

• A. Before meals
• B. After meals
• C. At bedtime
• D. In the morning

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin that provides a consistent level of insulin over 24 hours. Administering it at bedtime helps mimic the body's natural insulin secretion pattern and provides optimal blood glucose control during the night and throughout the day. Choice A (Before meals) is incorrect because insulin glargine is not a rapid-acting insulin meant to cover meals. Choice B (After meals) is incorrect as the timing doesn't align with the insulin's mechanism. Choice D (In the morning) is incorrect as administering insulin glargine in the morning may not provide adequate coverage throughout the night and the following day.

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