Nursing Elites

1. A client whose seizure disorder has been managed with phenytoin is admitted to the emergency department with status epilepticus. Which drug should the practical nurse anticipate being prescribed for administration to treat these seizures?

• A. Phenytoin
• B. Diazepam
• C. Phenobarbital
• D. Carbamazepine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, which is a life-threatening condition of prolonged seizures, rapid intervention is crucial. Diazepam is the drug of choice for treating status epilepticus due to its fast onset of action and effectiveness in stopping seizures. It acts by enhancing the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA to suppress seizure activity quickly. Phenytoin, although used for long-term seizure control, has a slower onset of action and is not the first-line medication for managing status epilepticus.

2. When a client with hepatic encephalopathy is receiving lactulose, which parameter is essential to monitor for a response to the drug?

• A. Serum hepatic enzymes
• B. Fingerstick glucose
• C. Stool color and character
• D. Serum electrolytes and ammonia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In hepatic encephalopathy, the goal of lactulose therapy is to reduce blood ammonia levels by promoting its excretion in the stool. Therefore, monitoring serum electrolytes and ammonia levels is crucial to assess the effectiveness of lactulose in lowering ammonia levels and improving the client's condition. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because serum hepatic enzymes, fingerstick glucose, and stool color/character are not directly related to monitoring the response to lactulose therapy in hepatic encephalopathy.

3. A 43-year-old female client who has had a thyroidectomy due to Grave's disease is prescribed a thyroid replacement hormone. Which signs and symptoms are associated with thyroid hormone toxicity and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider?

• A. Tinnitus and dizziness
• B. Tachycardia and chest pain
• C. Dry skin and intolerance to cold
• D. Weight gain and increased appetite

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia and chest pain. Signs and symptoms of thyroid hormone toxicity, especially in cases of excessive dosage, include tachycardia (rapid heart rate) and chest pain. These symptoms are consistent with hyperthyroidism, where the body is receiving an excessive amount of thyroid hormone. It is crucial to report these symptoms promptly to the healthcare provider to adjust the medication dosage and prevent potential complications. Choices A, C, and D are not indicative of thyroid hormone toxicity. Tinnitus and dizziness (Choice A) are not typical symptoms of thyroid hormone toxicity. Dry skin and intolerance to cold (Choice C) are more common in hypothyroidism, while weight gain and increased appetite (Choice D) are associated with hypothyroidism as well, not thyroid hormone toxicity.

4. What instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 prescribed alogliptin?

• A. Report any signs of pancreatitis to the healthcare provider.
• B. Take this medication with meals.
• C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• D. Report any signs of heart failure to the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Report any signs of pancreatitis to the healthcare provider. Alogliptin is associated with an increased risk of pancreatitis. Therefore, clients should be instructed to report any signs of pancreatitis, such as severe abdominal pain, to their healthcare provider promptly. This is essential for early detection and management of this serious adverse effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific side effect associated with alogliptin.

5. After receiving the third dose of a new oral anticoagulant prescription, which action should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the finding
• B. Provide a PRN NSAID for gum discomfort
• C. Review the most recent coagulation lab values
• D. Complete a medication variance report

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Reviewing the most recent coagulation lab values is crucial after receiving multiple doses of a new oral anticoagulant to ensure the patient is within the desired therapeutic range and to prevent adverse events related to over or under-anticoagulation. It is essential to monitor these values closely to adjust the dosage if needed. Notifying the healthcare provider of any concerning findings is important, but it may not be the immediate priority after receiving the third dose. Providing a PRN NSAID for gum discomfort is not typically indicated with oral anticoagulant therapy, as it may increase the risk of bleeding. Completing a medication variance report is more relevant in cases of medication errors or discrepancies, which may not apply in this scenario.

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