Nursing Elites

1. What side effect is a male client likely to experience while receiving furosemide 40mg by mouth?

• A. Difficulty starting urination
• B. Nosebleeds
• C. Muscle cramps
• D. Visual disturbances

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle cramps are a common side effect of furosemide due to its impact on electrolyte levels, especially potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion, resulting in muscle cramps as one of the manifestations of electrolyte imbalances. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Difficulty starting urination is not a common side effect of furosemide; nosebleeds and visual disturbances are not typically associated with this medication.

2. A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed digoxin. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Digoxin, a medication commonly prescribed for heart failure, can lead to bradycardia, characterized by a slow heart rate. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial to detect and manage this potential side effect early on to prevent complications such as arrhythmias or decreased cardiac output. Tachycardia (choice B) is not typically associated with digoxin use. Hypertension (choice C) and hypotension (choice D) are also not common side effects of digoxin.

3. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed hydroxyzine. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drowsiness. Hydroxyzine is known to cause drowsiness, so clients should be advised to avoid activities like driving until they understand how the medication affects them. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, nausea, and headache are not commonly associated with hydroxyzine use. It is crucial for the client to be aware of the potential drowsiness to ensure their safety and well-being while taking this medication.

4. A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is known to cause a persistent dry cough as a common side effect. Monitoring for this adverse effect is crucial because it may lead to non-adherence to the medication. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is a potential side effect of potassium-sparing diuretics, not ACE inhibitors like lisinopril. Hypernatremia (choice C) refers to elevated sodium levels and is not a common side effect of lisinopril. Hyponatremia (choice D) is a condition characterized by low sodium levels and is not a typical side effect of lisinopril. Therefore, the nurse should focus on assessing the client for a dry cough when taking lisinopril.

5. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. What is the most important instruction the practical nurse (PN) should provide to the client?

• A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Avoid taking folic acid supplements.
• C. Report any signs of infection immediately.
• D. Increase intake of vitamin C-rich foods.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: The most important instruction for a client taking methotrexate is to report any signs of infection immediately. Methotrexate can suppress the immune system, making the client more susceptible to infections. Early detection and treatment of infections are crucial to prevent complications. Instructing the client to be vigilant for signs of infection empowers them to take prompt action, enhancing their overall safety and well-being.

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