Nursing Elites

1. What side effect is a male client likely to experience while receiving furosemide 40mg by mouth?

• A. Difficulty starting urination
• B. Nosebleeds
• C. Muscle cramps
• D. Visual disturbances

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle cramps are a common side effect of furosemide due to its impact on electrolyte levels, especially potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion, resulting in muscle cramps as one of the manifestations of electrolyte imbalances. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Difficulty starting urination is not a common side effect of furosemide; nosebleeds and visual disturbances are not typically associated with this medication.

2. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed ziprasidone. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. QT prolongation
• B. Weight gain
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: QT prolongation. Ziprasidone is known to cause QT prolongation, which can potentially lead to serious cardiac issues. Monitoring the client's ECG is crucial to detect any changes and prevent adverse effects related to QT interval prolongation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, dry mouth, and increased appetite are not commonly associated with ziprasidone. While weight gain can be a side effect of some antipsychotic medications, it is not a prominent side effect of ziprasidone. Dry mouth and increased appetite are also not typically linked to ziprasidone use.

3. How should the healthcare provider schedule the administering of propylthiouracil (PTU)?

• A. Offer both drugs together with a meal
• B. Give parental dose once every 24 hours
• C. Schedule both medications at bedtime
• D. Administer iodine one hour before PTU

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering iodine one hour before PTU is crucial to ensure proper absorption and effectiveness of PTU. This timing helps optimize the therapeutic benefits of PTU by allowing it to be absorbed efficiently without interference from iodine, ultimately leading to better treatment outcomes for the patient. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because offering both drugs together with a meal, giving parental dose once every 24 hours, and scheduling both medications at bedtime do not address the specific timing requirement of administering iodine before PTU for optimal absorption.

4. A client receiving enalapril reports a persistent dry cough. The nurse should explain that this side effect is related to which medication action?

• A. It reduces the production of angiotensin II.
• B. It increases the production of angiotensin II.
• C. It causes increased production of bradykinin.
• D. It increases the production of aldosterone.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to increased levels of bradykinin. The accumulation of bradykinin is responsible for the persistent dry cough associated with ACE inhibitors like enalapril. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because enalapril does not directly affect the production of angiotensin II or aldosterone. Instead, it primarily impacts the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to bradykinin accumulation.

5. A client is prescribed an antacid for the treatment of peptic ulcer disease. What is the action of this medication that is effective in treating the client's ulcer?

• A. Decrease in the production of gastric secretions
• B. Production of an adherent barrier over the ulcer
• C. Maintenance of a gastric pH of 3.5 or above
• D. Decrease in the gastric motor activity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Antacids work by neutralizing gastric acids and maintaining a gastric pH of 3.5 or above. This pH level is crucial to prevent the activation of pepsinogen, a precursor to pepsin, which can further damage the ulcer. Choice A is incorrect because antacids do not directly decrease the production of gastric secretions; they neutralize existing acid. Choice B is incorrect as antacids do not form a physical barrier over the ulcer but rather neutralize the acid around it. Choice D is also incorrect as antacids do not affect gastric motor activity but focus on reducing acidity in the stomach.

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