a nurse is assessing a male client who is receiving furosemide 40mg by mouth side effect of drug
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HESI LPN

Pharmacology HESI 55 Questions 2023

1. What side effect is a male client likely to experience while receiving furosemide 40mg by mouth?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle cramps are a common side effect of furosemide due to its impact on electrolyte levels, especially potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion, resulting in muscle cramps as one of the manifestations of electrolyte imbalances. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Difficulty starting urination is not a common side effect of furosemide; nosebleeds and visual disturbances are not typically associated with this medication.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing the effectiveness of the drug amiodarone. Which client statement best indicates that the drug has been effective?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is option D. The effectiveness of amiodarone is best assessed by a reduction in irregular heartbeats since it is primarily used to treat ventricular dysrhythmias. This drug's main purpose is to control irregular heart rhythms, so a decrease in irregular heartbeats indicates its effectiveness. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because amiodarone is not primarily used to address angina, ankle swelling, or cholesterol levels, so improvements in these areas do not directly reflect the drug's effectiveness.

3. A client with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. What instruction should the practical nurse (PN) include in the client's teaching plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed metformin is to take the medication with a full glass of water. This helps ensure proper ingestion and absorption of the medication. While taking metformin with meals can help reduce gastrointestinal side effects, the primary focus should be on adequate hydration and absorption by taking it with water. Avoiding alcohol while taking metformin is also important as alcohol can increase the risk of lactic acidosis when combined with metformin. Taking the medication with meals to increase absorption is incorrect as metformin should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset, not to increase absorption.

4. During a home visit, a client with a history of angina reports frequent headaches. The client recently started a new prescription for diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to instruct the client to use acetaminophen for headaches. Acetaminophen is a suitable and safer option for managing headaches associated with calcium channel blockers like diltiazem. It is essential to avoid medications that can interact negatively with diltiazem, such as opioid analgesics. Discontinuing the medication abruptly without consulting the healthcare provider is not recommended. Monitoring for medication toxicity through blood samples is not typically indicated for managing headaches in this scenario.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed pioglitazone. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to report any signs of heart failure when taking pioglitazone. Pioglitazone is known to potentially exacerbate heart failure, so it is crucial for clients to monitor and report any symptoms of heart failure promptly to their healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices B and C are important but not specific to pioglitazone use. Choice D is incorrect as bladder cancer is not a known side effect of pioglitazone.

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