Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed clonidine 0.1 mg/24 hours via a transdermal patch. Which client outcome would indicate that the medication is effective?

• A. No complaints of recent episodes of angina
• B. Change in peripheral edema from +3 to +1
• C. No complaints of new onset of nausea or vomiting
• D. Blood pressure changes from 180/120 to 140/70 mm Hg

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clonidine is an antihypertensive agent that works centrally to reduce blood pressure. A significant decrease in blood pressure, such as changing from 180/120 to 140/70 mm Hg, indicates that the medication is effectively managing hypertension. Monitoring blood pressure levels is crucial in assessing the response to clonidine therapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the therapeutic effect of clonidine in managing hypertension, which is the primary goal of the medication in this scenario.

2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed rivaroxaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Dizziness
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is weight gain. Rivaroxaban, an anticoagulant, may lead to weight gain as a side effect due to fluid retention. Dry mouth (choice B), dizziness (choice C), and headache (choice D) are not typically associated with rivaroxaban use. Therefore, monitoring for weight gain is crucial to detect and manage this potential side effect in the client.

3. When a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed fondaparinux, the nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Increased risk of bleeding
• B. Decreased risk of bleeding
• C. Increased risk of infection
• D. Decreased risk of infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fondaparinux is an anticoagulant prescribed to prevent blood clots. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for an increased risk of bleeding, which is a potential adverse effect of this medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because fondaparinux does not decrease the risk of bleeding, increase the risk of infection, or decrease the risk of infection. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as unexplained bruising, bleeding gums, or blood in the urine or stool, is crucial when a client is on fondaparinux.

4. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed lorazepam. The client should be informed that this medication may have which potential side effect?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drowsiness. Lorazepam, a medication commonly used to treat anxiety disorders, can lead to drowsiness as a common side effect. It is important for clients to be aware of this potential effect, and they should be advised to avoid activities like driving until they understand how the medication affects them. Dry mouth, nausea, and headache are possible side effects of other medications but are less commonly associated with lorazepam.

5. The healthcare provider has administered albuterol as an inhaled medication. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which possible adverse reaction?

• A. Enuresis
• B. Lethargy
• C. Depression
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Albuterol is a bronchodilator in the adrenergic category. Its actions and adverse effects are similar to adrenaline or epinephrine. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for tachycardia, which is a common adverse effect of albuterol due to its stimulant effect on beta-2 receptors. Enuresis, or night bed-wetting, is not an adverse effect associated with albuterol. Additionally, the client should be monitored for anxiety as a potential adverse effect, not lethargy or depression, which are not typically associated with albuterol administration.

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