HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test Pharmacology
1. A client is prescribed diazepam for muscle spasms. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Avoid drinking alcohol
- B. Take with food to avoid gastrointestinal upset
- C. Increase fluid intake
- D. Take medication with grapefruit juice
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed diazepam for muscle spasms is to avoid drinking alcohol. Diazepam can cause drowsiness and enhance the effects of alcohol, leading to increased sedation and impaired cognitive function. Clients should be advised to avoid alcohol consumption while taking diazepam to prevent these adverse effects and ensure their safety.
2. Prior to administration of the initial dose of the GI agent misoprostol, which information should the nurse obtain from the client?
- A. Taking an anti-emetic medication
- B. History of glaucoma
- C. Currently pregnant
- D. Allergy to aspirin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. It is crucial for the nurse to obtain information regarding the client's pregnancy status before administering misoprostol, as this medication is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its potential to cause uterine contractions. This can lead to serious complications such as miscarriage or premature birth. Therefore, assessing whether the client is currently pregnant is essential to ensure the safe administration of misoprostol. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the administration of misoprostol. While knowing if the client is taking an anti-emetic medication may be relevant to prevent drug interactions, a history of glaucoma and allergy to aspirin are not primary concerns before administering misoprostol.
3. When planning to administer the antiulcer GI agent sucralfate, what instruction should the nurse provide regarding administration?
- A. Administer sucralfate once a day
- B. Assess for secondary candida infection
- C. Monitor electrolyte imbalance
- D. Give sucralfate on an empty stomach
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Sucralfate is most effective when taken on an empty stomach. This allows the medication to form a protective layer over the ulcer, promoting healing and symptom relief. Administering sucralfate with or after meals may reduce its efficacy as it may bind to food instead of coating the ulcer site.
4. A client with chronic heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, resulting in hyperkalemia. This side effect is important to monitor in clients taking spironolactone, especially those with chronic heart failure, as hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac complications.
5. A client with severe rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Bone marrow suppression
- B. Increased risk of infection
- C. Liver toxicity
- D. Kidney stones
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bone marrow suppression. Methotrexate, commonly used in rheumatoid arthritis, can lead to bone marrow suppression, reducing the production of blood cells and increasing the risk of infection. Monitoring for signs of anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia is crucial to detect bone marrow suppression early and prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while methotrexate can increase the risk of infection, liver toxicity, and kidney issues, the primary concern and most significant adverse effect to monitor for is bone marrow suppression due to its impact on blood cell production.
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