HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Questions
1. A client with schizophrenia is receiving haloperidol (Haldol). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Hypotension
- C. Extrapyramidal symptoms
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Extrapyramidal symptoms. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms such as tardive dyskinesia and akathisia. These side effects are common with the use of typical antipsychotics. Choice A, Tachycardia, is not a common side effect of haloperidol. Choice B, Hypotension, is also not a typical side effect associated with haloperidol use. Choice D, Hyperglycemia, is not directly linked to haloperidol administration, as it is more commonly associated with other medications like atypical antipsychotics or certain medical conditions.
2. What title should be given to this occupational health nurse job description?
- A. manager
- B. case manager
- C. health educator
- D. nurse consultant
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct title for this occupational health nurse job description is 'nurse consultant.' A nurse consultant is a registered professional nurse with expertise in occupational and environmental health nursing, effective communication skills, and good administrative and consultative abilities. Choice A, 'manager,' is incorrect as the job description does not primarily focus on managerial duties. Choice B, 'case manager,' is incorrect as it does not fully cover the scope of the described role. Choice C, 'health educator,' is incorrect as it does not encompass the administrative and consultative skills mentioned in the job description.
3. Serge, who has diabetes mellitus, is taking oral agents and is scheduled for a diagnostic test that requires him to be NPO. What is the best plan of action for the nurse regarding Serge's oral medications?
- A. Administer the oral agents immediately after the test.
- B. Notify the diagnostic department and request orders.
- C. Notify the physician and request orders.
- D. Administer the oral agents with a sip of water before the test.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The best plan of action for the nurse is to notify the physician and request orders regarding Serge's oral medications. By involving the physician, the nurse ensures that appropriate instructions are obtained, considering Serge's medical condition and the need for NPO status for the diagnostic test. Administering the medications without medical guidance (choice A) can be risky, as it may affect the test results. Notifying the diagnostic department (choice B) is not the most direct and appropriate action; the physician is the primary healthcare provider responsible for medication orders. Administering the medications with water before the test (choice D) is not advisable when the patient is supposed to be NPO, as it can interfere with the test requirements.
4. A healthcare provider has inserted an indwelling catheter for a male patient. Where should the healthcare provider tape the catheter to prevent pressure on the client's urethra at the penoscrotal junction?
- A. Lower abdomen
- B. Upper thigh
- C. Penoscrotal junction
- D. Mid-abdomen
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Taping the catheter to the lower abdomen is the correct placement to prevent pressure on the urethra at the penoscrotal junction. Securing the catheter at the lower abdomen helps in reducing discomfort and minimizes the risk of trauma to the urethra. Placing the catheter on the upper thigh or penoscrotal junction can lead to tension on the catheter and potential discomfort for the patient. Taping the catheter to the mid-abdomen is not recommended as it does not provide the necessary support to prevent pressure on the urethra at the penoscrotal junction.
5. A 20-year-old male client is diagnosed with Ewing’s sarcoma following an examination for a knee injury. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide the client?
- A. Take analgesics regularly to manage pain
- B. Notify the healthcare provider if the swelling worsens
- C. Avoid weight-bearing on the affected knee until the injury heals
- D. Seek treatment for the sarcoma immediately
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most crucial instruction for the nurse to provide the client is to seek treatment for the sarcoma immediately. Ewing's sarcoma is a type of cancer that necessitates prompt and aggressive treatment for the best possible outcome. While managing pain (Choice A) and monitoring swelling (Choice B) are important, addressing the underlying sarcoma is the priority. Instructing the client to avoid weight-bearing (Choice C) is not directly related to the treatment of Ewing's sarcoma and may not be the most critical instruction at this point.