a client with schizophrenia is receiving haloperidol haldol the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects
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Community Health HESI Questions

1. A client with schizophrenia is receiving haloperidol (Haldol). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Extrapyramidal symptoms. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms such as tardive dyskinesia and akathisia. These side effects are common with the use of typical antipsychotics. Choice A, Tachycardia, is not a common side effect of haloperidol. Choice B, Hypotension, is also not a typical side effect associated with haloperidol use. Choice D, Hyperglycemia, is not directly linked to haloperidol administration, as it is more commonly associated with other medications like atypical antipsychotics or certain medical conditions.

2. What does the acronym ICD stand for in medical terminology?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: International Classification of Diseases. The ICD is a system used worldwide to classify and code various health conditions and diseases. This system helps in standardizing the documentation and coding of diseases, which is essential for epidemiology, research, and healthcare management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent the widely recognized meaning of the acronym ICD in medical terminology.

3. Which of the following is an example of a modifiable risk factor for chronic diseases?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Physical inactivity is a modifiable risk factor for chronic diseases because individuals have control over their level of physical activity. By increasing physical activity, the risk of chronic diseases can be reduced. Choices A, B, and C are not modifiable risk factors: Age is a non-modifiable factor, gender is a biological characteristic, and genetic predisposition is inherent and cannot be altered.

4. A newborn presents with a pronounced cephalic hematoma following a birth in the posterior position. Which nursing diagnosis should guide the plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis to guide the plan of care for a newborn with a pronounced cephalic hematoma following a birth in the posterior position is 'Parental anxiety related to knowledge deficit.' This is appropriate because the parents may be worried about the appearance and potential complications of the cephalic hematoma. They may require education and reassurance from the nurse. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not address the emotional needs of the parents and the knowledge deficit they may have regarding the condition.

5. What title should be given to this occupational health nurse job description?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct title for this occupational health nurse job description is 'nurse consultant.' A nurse consultant is a registered professional nurse with expertise in occupational and environmental health nursing, effective communication skills, and good administrative and consultative abilities. Choice A, 'manager,' is incorrect as the job description does not primarily focus on managerial duties. Choice B, 'case manager,' is incorrect as it does not fully cover the scope of the described role. Choice C, 'health educator,' is incorrect as it does not encompass the administrative and consultative skills mentioned in the job description.

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