Nursing Elites

1. What is usually the first contact between community members and other levels of health facilities called?

• A. Secondary level health care
• B. Primary health care
• C. Tertiary level care
• D. Intermediate level care

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Primary health care. Primary health care is the initial point of contact between community members and the healthcare system. This level of care focuses on preventive and primary treatment services. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because secondary, tertiary, and intermediate care levels are more specialized and are usually accessed after primary care, depending on the complexity of the health issue.

2. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is receiving methotrexate (Rheumatrex). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Leukopenia
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leukopenia. Methotrexate, used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, can lead to bone marrow suppression, resulting in leukopenia. This condition increases the risk of infections due to decreased white blood cell count. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because methotrexate is not known to cause hyperglycemia, hypertension, or hypokalemia as its primary adverse effects.

3. What is the measure of the number of existing cases of a disease in a specific population at a given time?

• A. Incidence
• B. Prevalence
• C. Mortality rate
• D. Morbidity rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prevalence is the correct answer as it refers to the number of existing cases of a disease in a specific population at a given time. Incidence, on the other hand, refers to the number of new cases of a disease in a defined population over a specific period. Mortality rate is the measure of the number of deaths in a particular population due to a specific cause, while morbidity rate is the frequency of a disease in a specific population.

4. In a long term rehabilitation care unit a client with spinal cord injury complains of a pounding headache. The client is sitting in a wheelchair watching television in the assigned room. Further assessment by the nurse reveals excessive sweating, a splotchy rash, pilomotor erection, facial flushing, congested nasal passages and a heart rate of 50. The nurse should do which action next?

• A. Take the client's respirations, blood pressure (BP), temperature and then pupillary responses
• B. Place the client into the bed and administer the ordered PRN analgesic
• C. Check the client for bladder distention and the client's urinary catheter for kinks
• D. Turn the television off and then assist client to use relaxation techniques

Correct answer: C

Rationale: These symptoms suggest autonomic dysreflexia, often triggered by bladder distention.

5. An infant has just returned from surgery for placement of a gastrostomy tube as an initial treatment for tracheoesophageal fistula. The mother asks, 'When can the tube be used for feeding?' The nurse's best response would be which of these comments?

• A. "Feedings can begin in 5 to 7 days."
• B. "The use of the feeding tube can begin immediately."
• C. "The stomach contents and air must be drained first."
• D. "The incision healing must be complete before feeding."

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The stomach contents and air must be drained first.' Before starting feedings through a gastrostomy tube, it is essential to drain the stomach contents and air. This process helps prevent complications and ensures the proper functioning of the tube after placement. Choice A is incorrect because initiating feedings within 5 to 7 days may lead to complications if the stomach is not adequately prepared. Choice B is incorrect as feeding should not begin immediately to allow for proper preparation of the tube and the stomach. Choice D is incorrect because although incision healing is important, draining the stomach contents and air is a more immediate concern to prevent complications.

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