Nursing Elites

1. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with risperidone (Risperdal). The nurse notices that the client has a shuffling gait and tremors. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a PRN dose of an anticholinergic medication.
• B. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.
• C. Assess the client's blood glucose level.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A shuffling gait and tremors may indicate extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) from risperidone. The nurse's priority action should be to administer an anticholinergic medication as it can help alleviate these symptoms associated with EPS. Documenting the findings and monitoring the client (Choice B) are important but addressing the immediate symptoms takes precedence. Assessing the client's blood glucose level (Choice C) is not directly related to the observed symptoms of shuffling gait and tremors. While notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important, it is not the priority action when dealing with EPS symptoms.

2. A 20-year-old female client with schizophrenia is scheduled to receive risperidone (Risperdal) 2mg at bedtime. When the nurse attempts to administer the medication, the client states, 'I am not going to take that medicine, and you can't make me.' What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the medication via a nasogastric tube.
• B. Substitute an injectable form of the medication.
• C. Encourage the client to take the medicine because it will help her sleep.
• D. Document in the client's record that the medication was refused.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action for the nurse to take is to respect the client's autonomy and decision-making capacity. It's crucial to document the medication refusal accurately in the client's record. Administering the medication via a nasogastric tube or substituting it with an injectable form would violate the client's right to refuse treatment and should only be considered in extreme cases after consulting with the healthcare team. Encouraging the client to take the medication because it will help her sleep disregards her autonomy and choice in the matter.

3. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who has been prescribed lithium carbonate. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide?

• A. Take the medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
• B. Do not change your salt intake while on this medication.
• C. Drink plenty of water and maintain a consistent salt intake.
• D. Avoid excessive intake of caffeine while on this medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important instruction for a client prescribed lithium carbonate is not to change their salt intake. Alterations in sodium levels can impact lithium levels, leading to an increased risk of toxicity. Choice A is not crucial for lithium carbonate administration. While hydration is essential, maintaining a consistent salt intake is more critical than just increasing water intake (Choice C). Although caffeine can interact with lithium, it is not as important as maintaining a consistent salt intake (Choice D).

4. Which diet selection by a client who is depressed and taking the MAO inhibitor tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate) indicates to the nurse that the client understands the dietary restrictions imposed by this medication regimen?

• A. Hamburger, French fries, and chocolate milkshake.
• B. Liver and onions, broccoli, and decaffeinated coffee.
• C. Pepperoni and cheese pizza, tossed salad, and a soft drink.
• D. Roast beef, baked potato with butter, and iced tea.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Roast beef, baked potato with butter, and iced tea are safe choices as they do not contain tyramine, which must be avoided with MAO inhibitors like Parnate. Tyramine-rich foods like aged cheeses, certain meats, and fermented products can cause a hypertensive crisis when combined with MAO inhibitors. Choices A, B, and C contain foods high in tyramine and are not recommended for individuals taking MAO inhibitors.

5. The wife of a male client recently diagnosed with schizophrenia asks the nurse, 'What exactly is schizophrenia? Is my husband all right?' Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide to this family member?

• A. It sounds like you're worried about your husband. Let's sit down and talk.
• B. It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.
• C. Your husband will be just fine if he takes his medications regularly.
• D. I think you should talk to your husband's psychologist about this question.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for the LPN/LVN to provide to the wife of a male client diagnosed with schizophrenia is choice B: 'It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.' This response educates the wife about the nature of schizophrenia, explaining that it is caused by a chemical imbalance in the brain leading to disorganized thinking, helping her understand the condition better. Choice A does not directly address the question and instead shifts the focus to a different aspect. Choice C gives false reassurance without providing necessary information about schizophrenia. Choice D deflects the responsibility of providing information to the psychologist instead of addressing the wife's concerns directly.

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