Nursing Elites

1. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with risperidone (Risperdal). The nurse notices that the client has a shuffling gait and tremors. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a PRN dose of an anticholinergic medication.
• B. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.
• C. Assess the client's blood glucose level.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A shuffling gait and tremors may indicate extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) from risperidone. The nurse's priority action should be to administer an anticholinergic medication as it can help alleviate these symptoms associated with EPS. Documenting the findings and monitoring the client (Choice B) are important but addressing the immediate symptoms takes precedence. Assessing the client's blood glucose level (Choice C) is not directly related to the observed symptoms of shuffling gait and tremors. While notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important, it is not the priority action when dealing with EPS symptoms.

2. The RN documents the mental status of a female client who has been hospitalized for several days by court order. The client states 'I don't need to be here,' and tells the RN that she believes that the TV talks to her. The RN should document these assessment statements in which section of the mental status exam?

• A. Insight and judgment.
• B. Mood and affect.
• C. Remote memory.
• D. Level of concentration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Insight and judgment. The client's statements indicate her lack of insight into her need for hospitalization ('I don't need to be here') and the presence of a delusion (believing that the TV talks to her). These statements reflect the client's insight into her condition and judgment. This information is crucial for assessing the client's understanding of her situation and decision-making capacity. Choice B, Mood and affect, focuses on the client's emotional state rather than her insight and judgment. Choice C, Remote memory, pertains to the ability to recall past events, which is not the primary focus of the client's statements. Choice D, Level of concentration, is not directly related to the client's statements about her need for hospitalization and the delusional belief about the TV.

3. A client is on a methadone maintenance program for opioid addiction. What is the most important assessment to perform?

• A. Monitor for signs of withdrawal.
• B. Assess for signs of methadone toxicity.
• C. Evaluate the client's respiratory status.
• D. Check the client's blood pressure regularly.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important assessment to perform for a client on a methadone maintenance program is to evaluate the client's respiratory status. Methadone can cause respiratory depression as a side effect, making it crucial to monitor the client's breathing to prevent potential complications. Monitoring for signs of withdrawal (choice A) is important but not the most critical in this scenario. Assessing for signs of methadone toxicity (choice B) is relevant, but respiratory status takes precedence due to the risk of respiratory depression. Checking the client's blood pressure regularly (choice D) is important for overall assessment but is not as crucial as monitoring respiratory status in this case.

4. An outpatient clinic that has been receiving haloperidol (Haldol) for 2 days develops muscular rigidity, altered consciousness, a temperature of 103, and trouble breathing on day 3. The LPN/LVN interprets these findings as indicating which of the following?

• A. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
• B. Tardive dyskinesia
• C. Extrapyramidal adverse effects
• D. Drug-induced parkinsonism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) is a life-threatening condition characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, altered consciousness, and autonomic dysregulation. It is a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol (Haldol). NMS requires immediate intervention, including discontinuation of the offending medication and supportive care. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements of the face and extremities that can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Extrapyramidal adverse effects (Choice C) encompass a range of movement disorders like dystonia, akathisia, and parkinsonism that can result from antipsychotic medications, but they do not present with hyperthermia and altered consciousness as in NMS. Drug-induced parkinsonism (Choice D) is a form of parkinsonism caused by certain medications, but it typically presents with symptoms similar to Parkinson's disease, such as tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity, without the severe hyperthermia and autonomic dysregulation seen in NMS.

5. An adolescent who attempted suicide with a drug overdose arrives in the emergency department with an empty 30-tablet bottle of acetaminophen (Tylenol). Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst).
• B. Monitor cardiac rhythm for flat T waves.
• C. Check both serum AST and ALT levels.
• D. Prepare to administer Syrup of Ipecac.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst). Acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose and should be administered promptly to prevent liver damage. Monitoring cardiac rhythm for flat T waves (Choice B) is not specific to acetaminophen overdose and is more related to cardiac conditions. Checking serum AST and ALT levels (Choice C) may be done later but is not the initial priority in this situation. Similarly, preparing to administer Syrup of Ipecac (Choice D) is not recommended anymore in cases of overdose as it can cause more harm.

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