HESI LPN
Mental Health HESI Practice Questions
1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with major depressive disorder who is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). What is the most important teaching point for the nurse to include?
- A. You may experience dizziness, so avoid driving.
- B. It may take several weeks to feel the full effect of the medication.
- C. Avoid foods high in tyramine while taking this medication.
- D. Take this medication only when you feel depressed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because SSRIs like fluoxetine typically take several weeks to reach their full therapeutic effect, so it's important to set realistic expectations for the client. Choice A is incorrect as dizziness is a common side effect but not the most important teaching point. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding tyramine-rich foods is more relevant for MAOIs. Choice D is incorrect as fluoxetine should be taken consistently, not only when the client feels depressed, to maintain therapeutic blood levels.
2. Which client outcome indicates improvement for a client who is admitted with auditory hallucinations?
- A. Argues with the voices.
- B. Tells when voices decrease.
- C. Follows what the voices say.
- D. Tells the nurse what the voices say.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Tells when voices decrease.' This outcome indicates improvement because it shows that the client is experiencing a reduction in auditory hallucinations. By communicating that the voices are decreasing, it suggests that the client's symptoms are improving and the treatment is effective. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Arguing with the voices (A) indicates ongoing engagement with the hallucinations, which is not a positive outcome. Following what the voices say (C) suggests compliance with the hallucinations, which is not indicative of improvement. Lastly, telling the nurse what the voices say (D) does not necessarily demonstrate a reduction in hallucinations or improvement in the client's condition.
3. The nurse is taking a history for a female client who is requesting a routine female exam. Which assessment finding requires follow-up?
- A. Menstruation onset at age 9.
- B. Contraceptive method includes condoms only.
- C. Menstrual cycle occurs every 35 days.
- D. 'Black-out' after one drink last night on a date.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Experiencing a 'black-out' after consuming only one drink is highly unusual and may indicate the client was drugged, necessitating immediate follow-up. Menstruation onset at age 9 and a menstrual cycle occurring every 35 days, although on the outer ranges of 'average,' are within acceptable norms. Relying solely on condoms as a contraceptive method increases the risk of conception.
4. An adult male client who was admitted to the mental health unit yesterday tells the nurse that microchips were planted in his head for military surveillance of his every move. Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide?
- A. You are in the hospital, and I am the nurse caring for you.
- B. It must be difficult for you to control your anxious feelings.
- C. Go to occupational therapy and start a project.
- D. You are not in a war area now; this is the United States.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best response for the LPN/LVN to provide is option A: 'You are in the hospital, and I am the nurse caring for you.' This response is effective as it grounds the client in the present reality while also acknowledging the client's feelings. It shows acceptance of the client's experience without directly challenging the delusional belief, which can help build rapport and trust. Option B focuses on anxiety rather than validating the client's experience or addressing the delusion. Option C suggests an unrelated activity that may not be helpful in this situation. Option D attempts to correct the client's belief, which is not likely to be effective in managing delusional thoughts.
5. A newly admitted client describes her mission in life as one of saving her son by eliminating the 'provocative sluts' of the world. There are several attractive young women on the unit. What should the LPN/LVN do first?
- A. Ask the client for her definition of 'provocative sluts'
- B. Ask the young female clients on the unit to dress less provocatively
- C. Ask the client to discuss her concerns in the next group session
- D. Ask the client to inform the staff if she has negative thoughts about other clients
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the LPN/LVN to take first is to ask the client to inform the staff if she has negative thoughts about other clients. This approach is crucial as it helps in monitoring the client's thoughts and behaviors, potentially preventing any harmful actions towards others on the unit. Asking for the client's definition of 'provocative sluts' (Choice A) may not address the immediate concern of monitoring the client's harmful thoughts. Asking the young female clients to dress less provocatively (Choice B) is inappropriate and victim-blaming. Asking the client to discuss her concerns in the next group session (Choice C) may not be effective in addressing the potential harm the client's thoughts could pose to others on the unit.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access