Nursing Elites

1. A 25-year-old female client has been particularly restless, and the nurse finds her trying to leave the psychiatric unit. She tells the nurse, 'Please let me go! I must leave because the secret police are after me.' Which response is best for the nurse to make?

• A. No one is after you; you're safe here.
• B. You'll feel better after you have rested.
• C. I know you must feel lonely and frightened.
• D. Come with me to your room, and I will sit with you.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the best response for the nurse is to offer presence and a safe environment without validating the delusion or arguing with the client. By inviting the client to the room and offering to sit with her, the nurse is providing support and reassurance. Choice A is incorrect because directly denying the client's belief may escalate the situation. Choice B is inappropriate as it dismisses the client's concerns without addressing the underlying issue. Choice C acknowledges the client's feelings but does not provide immediate support or safety, unlike Choice D which offers both.

2. A female client with anorexia nervosa is admitted to the hospital. What is the priority assessment for the nurse to perform?

• A. Assess the client's body image perception.
• B. Monitor the client's electrolyte levels.
• C. Evaluate the client's exercise habits.
• D. Assess the client's relationship with her family.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's electrolyte levels. In clients with anorexia nervosa, electrolyte imbalances can lead to serious, potentially life-threatening complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Assessing body image perception (choice A) is important but not the priority when compared to monitoring electrolyte levels. Evaluating exercise habits (choice C) and assessing the client's relationship with her family (choice D) are also important aspects of care but do not take precedence over monitoring electrolyte levels in a client with anorexia nervosa.

3. A 52-year-old male client in the intensive care unit who has been oriented suddenly becomes disoriented and fearful. Assessment of vital signs and other physical parameters reveal no significant change, and the nurse formulates the diagnosis, 'Confusion related to ICU psychosis.' Which intervention would be best to implement?

• A. Move all machines away from the client's immediate area.
• B. Attempt to allay the client's fears by explaining the etiology of his condition.
• C. Cluster care so that brief periods of rest can be scheduled during the day.
• D. Extend visitation times for family and friends.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In critical care environments, stressors can lead to isolation and confusion. Providing the client with scheduled rest periods (C) can help alleviate these symptoms. Moving all machines away (A) is impractical as they are often essential. Explaining the condition (B) may not be effective during acute confusion. Extending visitation times (D) can be overwhelming for the client in the ICU.

4. Which action should the nurse implement during the termination phase of the nurse-client relationship?

• A. Identify new problem areas.
• B. Confront changes not completed.
• C. Explore the client's past in depth.
• D. Help summarize accomplishments.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the termination phase of the nurse-client relationship, it is essential for the nurse to help summarize accomplishments. This action provides closure by reflecting on the progress and goals achieved during treatment. It reinforces the positive aspects of the therapeutic relationship and helps the client acknowledge their growth and achievements. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Identifying new problem areas is not appropriate during termination, as the focus should be on closure. Confronting changes not completed may create tension and disrupt the positive closure process. Exploring the client's past in depth is more suitable for earlier stages of the therapeutic relationship, not during termination.

5. A client who is being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness. What action should the LPN/LVN take?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately and prepare for administration of an antidote.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider of the symptoms prior to the next administration of the drug.
• C. Record the symptoms as normal side effects and continue administration of the prescribed dosage.
• D. Hold the medication and refuse to administer additional amounts of the drug.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops symptoms like diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness, it could indicate lithium toxicity. The appropriate action for the LPN/LVN is to notify the healthcare provider immediately of these symptoms before the next administration of the drug. This prompt communication is crucial to ensure that the healthcare provider can assess the situation, adjust the treatment plan if necessary, and prevent potential complications associated with lithium toxicity. Option A is incorrect because administering an antidote should be based on the healthcare provider's assessment. Option C is incorrect as these symptoms are not normal side effects and could indicate a serious issue. Option D is incorrect because refusing to administer the drug without consulting the healthcare provider could delay necessary interventions.

Similar Questions