HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health
1. A 25-year-old female client has been particularly restless, and the nurse finds her trying to leave the psychiatric unit. She tells the nurse, 'Please let me go! I must leave because the secret police are after me.' Which response is best for the nurse to make?
- A. No one is after you; you're safe here.
- B. You'll feel better after you have rested.
- C. I know you must feel lonely and frightened.
- D. Come with me to your room, and I will sit with you.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the best response for the nurse is to offer presence and a safe environment without validating the delusion or arguing with the client. By inviting the client to the room and offering to sit with her, the nurse is providing support and reassurance. Choice A is incorrect because directly denying the client's belief may escalate the situation. Choice B is inappropriate as it dismisses the client's concerns without addressing the underlying issue. Choice C acknowledges the client's feelings but does not provide immediate support or safety, unlike Choice D which offers both.
2. What information should the nurse include in the client's teaching about starting a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for major depressive disorder?
- A. It may take several weeks for the medication to take effect.
- B. You can stop taking the medication once you feel better.
- C. Avoid foods high in tyramine while on this medication.
- D. You should expect an immediate improvement in mood.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "It may take several weeks for the medication to take effect." SSRIs typically take several weeks to reach their full effect, and it's important to set realistic expectations for the client. Choice B is incorrect because stopping the medication abruptly can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of depression. Choice C is unrelated to SSRI therapy and pertains more to MAOIs. Choice D is incorrect as SSRIs do not provide immediate improvement in mood; rather, they require time to exert their therapeutic effects.
3. The nurse is preparing to administer phenelzine sulfate (Nardil) to a client on the psychiatric unit. Which complaint related to administration of this drug should the nurse expect this client to make?
- A. My mouth feels like cotton.
- B. That medication gives me indigestion.
- C. This pill gives me diarrhea.
- D. My urine looks pink.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Dry mouth is a common side effect of MAO inhibitors like phenelzine due to their anticholinergic effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as indigestion, diarrhea, and pink urine are not commonly associated side effects of phenelzine.
4. A client with alcohol use disorder is admitted for detoxification. The nurse should monitor for which early sign of alcohol withdrawal?
- A. Seizures
- B. Visual hallucinations
- C. Tremors
- D. Delirium tremens
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Tremors are an early sign of alcohol withdrawal. They are caused by hyperactivity of the autonomic nervous system and are a common symptom during the early stages of withdrawal. Monitoring tremors is crucial as they can progress to more severe symptoms if not managed effectively. Seizures (Choice A) typically occur later in the withdrawal process and are a more severe symptom. Visual hallucinations (Choice B) usually manifest after tremors and are considered a mid-stage symptom. Delirium tremens (Choice D) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that typically occurs 2-3 days after the last drink, characterized by confusion, disorientation, and severe autonomic hyperactivity.
5. A young adult female client is admitted to a psychiatric facility with a medical diagnosis of bulimia nervosa. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?
- A. Schedule the client for group therapy with other clients with bulimia nervosa.
- B. Assign the client's care to a nurse with relevant experience in eating disorders.
- C. Monitor the client carefully for binging and purging activities.
- D. Assess and report the client's electrolyte status to the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Assessing and reporting the client's electrolyte status to the healthcare provider is the highest priority in a client with bulimia nervosa. Electrolyte imbalances, such as hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis, are common due to purging behaviors associated with bulimia. Monitoring electrolyte levels is crucial to prevent life-threatening complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while therapy and monitoring for binging activities are important, addressing the electrolyte imbalances caused by purging behaviors takes precedence in the immediate care of a client with bulimia nervosa.
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