HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health
1. A male client is admitted to a mental health unit on Friday afternoon and is very upset on Sunday because he has not had the opportunity to talk with the healthcare provider. Which response is best for the nurse to provide this client?
- A. Let me call and leave a message for your healthcare provider.
- B. The healthcare provider should be here on Monday morning.
- C. How can I help answer your questions?
- D. What concerns do you have at this time?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: It is best for the nurse to call the healthcare provider (A) because clients have the right to information about their treatment. Suggesting that the healthcare provider will be available the following day (B) does not provide immediate reassurance to the client. While offering to help answer questions (C) and inquiring about concerns (D) are supportive approaches, contacting the healthcare provider is the most appropriate action to address the client's immediate need for communication with their healthcare provider.
2. On admission to a residential care facility, an elderly female client tells the nurse that she enjoys cooking, quilting, and watching television. Twenty-four hours after admission, the nurse notes that the client is withdrawn and isolated. It is best for the nurse to encourage this client to become involved in which activity?
- A. Clean the unit kitchen cabinets.
- B. Participate in a group quilting project.
- C. Watch television in the activity room.
- D. Bake a cake for a resident's birthday.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Peer interaction in a group activity (B) such as participating in a group quilting project will help to prevent social isolation and withdrawal. This will provide the elderly client with an opportunity to engage with others, share experiences, and feel a sense of belonging. Choices (A, C, and D) are activities that can be accomplished alone, without peer interaction, which may not effectively address the client's feelings of withdrawal and isolation.
3. A middle-aged adult with major depressive disorder suffers from psychomotor retardation, hypersomnia, and low motivation. Which intervention is likely to be most effective in returning this client to a normal level of functioning?
- A. Provide education on methods to enhance sleep.
- B. Teach the client to develop a plan for daily structured activities.
- C. Suggest that the client develop a list of pleasurable activities.
- D. Encourage the client to exercise.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Teaching the client to develop a plan for daily structured activities is the most effective intervention in this case. Creating a routine can help improve motivation and provide a sense of accomplishment, aiding in the recovery process. Option A, providing education on methods to enhance sleep, may address hypersomnia but does not directly target psychomotor retardation and low motivation. Option C, suggesting the client develop a list of pleasurable activities, may not address the need for structure and routine. Option D, encouraging the client to exercise, is beneficial but may not be as effective as creating a structured daily plan to address the client's specific symptoms.
4. A client's medication sheet contains a prescription for sertraline (Zoloft). To ensure safe administration of the medication, a nurse would administer the dose:
- A. On an empty stomach
- B. At the same time each evening
- C. Evenly spaced around the clock
- D. As needed when the client complains of depression
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'At the same time each evening.' Sertraline should be administered at the same time each evening to maintain steady drug levels and effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because sertraline can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as sertraline does not need to be spaced around the clock. Choice D is incorrect as sertraline is a scheduled medication and should not be taken on an as-needed basis for complaints of depression.
5. The wife of a male client recently diagnosed with schizophrenia asks the nurse, 'What exactly is schizophrenia? Is my husband all right?' Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide to this family member?
- A. It sounds like you're worried about your husband. Let's sit down and talk.
- B. It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.
- C. Your husband will be just fine if he takes his medications regularly.
- D. I think you should talk to your husband's psychologist about this question.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best response for the LPN/LVN to provide to the wife of a male client diagnosed with schizophrenia is choice B: 'It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.' This response educates the wife about the nature of schizophrenia, explaining that it is caused by a chemical imbalance in the brain leading to disorganized thinking, helping her understand the condition better. Choice A does not directly address the question and instead shifts the focus to a different aspect. Choice C gives false reassurance without providing necessary information about schizophrenia. Choice D deflects the responsibility of providing information to the psychologist instead of addressing the wife's concerns directly.
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