Nursing Elites

1. A male client is admitted to a mental health unit on Friday afternoon and is very upset on Sunday because he has not had the opportunity to talk with the healthcare provider. Which response is best for the nurse to provide this client?

• A. Let me call and leave a message for your healthcare provider.
• B. The healthcare provider should be here on Monday morning.
• C. How can I help answer your questions?
• D. What concerns do you have at this time?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is best for the nurse to call the healthcare provider (A) because clients have the right to information about their treatment. Suggesting that the healthcare provider will be available the following day (B) does not provide immediate reassurance to the client. While offering to help answer questions (C) and inquiring about concerns (D) are supportive approaches, contacting the healthcare provider is the most appropriate action to address the client's immediate need for communication with their healthcare provider.

2. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a manic episode. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Encourage group activities to decrease isolation.
• B. Provide a structured environment with routine activities.
• C. Limit the client's physical activity to prevent exhaustion.
• D. Allow the client to choose activities freely.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals with bipolar disorder may exhibit excessive energy, impulsivity, and disorganized behavior. Providing a structured environment with routine activities is the most appropriate nursing intervention. This approach can help regulate the client's behavior, reduce impulsivity, and prevent engaging in potentially harmful activities. Encouraging group activities (Choice A) may exacerbate the client's symptoms due to overstimulation. Limiting physical activity (Choice C) may not address the need for structure and routine during a manic episode. Allowing the client to choose activities freely (Choice D) can lead to impulsive decision-making and may not provide the necessary boundaries required to manage the manic symptoms effectively.

3. A female client with major depression is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). She reports experiencing increased energy but still feels sad and hopeless. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. ''These feelings are normal and will pass with time.''
• B. ''Increased energy can sometimes lead to increased risk for self-harm.''
• C. ''The medication needs more time to be effective.''
• D. ''Let's talk about the things that make you feel this way.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Increased energy without improvement in mood can increase the risk of self-harm in clients with depression. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this potential risk and closely monitor the client for any signs of self-harm. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the client's persistent feelings of sadness and hopelessness as normal may invalidate her experiences. Choice C is incorrect as fluoxetine (Prozac) typically starts showing effectiveness within a few weeks, so further delay is concerning. Choice D is incorrect because while discussing the client's feelings is important, the immediate focus should be on addressing the potential risk of self-harm associated with increased energy.

4. An LPN/LVN is caring for a suicidal client. The appropriate nursing intervention in dealing with this client is to:

• A. Demonstrate confidence in the client's ability to deal with stressors
• B. Provide hope and reassurance that the problems will resolve themselves
• C. Display an attitude of detachment, confrontation, and efficiency
• D. Provide authority, action, and participation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When caring for a suicidal client, providing authority, taking action, and encouraging the client's participation in their care are essential. Choice A is incorrect as it may not be sufficient for the critical situation of a suicidal client. Choice B, while offering hope, may not address the immediate risk of harm. Choice C's attitude of detachment and confrontation can be counterproductive in establishing trust and rapport with the client. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to provide authority, take action to ensure safety, and involve the client in the care process.

5. The RN is preparing to administer a prescribed dose of haloperidol (Haldol) to a client with schizophrenia. The client begins to exhibit muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status. What action should the RN take first?

• A. Administer the haloperidol as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's vital signs closely.
• C. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider.
• D. Give the client an antipyretic for the fever.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status are symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications. The RN should hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider immediately. Option A is incorrect because administering more of the medication can worsen the symptoms. Option B is not the first priority when the client is experiencing symptoms of NMS. Option D is incorrect as addressing the fever alone does not address the underlying issue of NMS caused by haloperidol.

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