HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health
1. A male client is admitted to a mental health unit on Friday afternoon and is very upset on Sunday because he has not had the opportunity to talk with the healthcare provider. Which response is best for the nurse to provide this client?
- A. Let me call and leave a message for your healthcare provider.
- B. The healthcare provider should be here on Monday morning.
- C. How can I help answer your questions?
- D. What concerns do you have at this time?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: It is best for the nurse to call the healthcare provider (A) because clients have the right to information about their treatment. Suggesting that the healthcare provider will be available the following day (B) does not provide immediate reassurance to the client. While offering to help answer questions (C) and inquiring about concerns (D) are supportive approaches, contacting the healthcare provider is the most appropriate action to address the client's immediate need for communication with their healthcare provider.
2. A female client with bulimia nervosa is admitted to the hospital. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Allow the client to eat meals alone to reduce stress.
- B. Observe the client for 30 minutes after meals.
- C. Provide the client with a high-calorie diet.
- D. Encourage the client to weigh herself daily.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with bulimia nervosa is to observe the client for 30 minutes after meals. This helps prevent purging behaviors, such as vomiting or using laxatives, which are common in bulimia nervosa. Choice A is incorrect because eating meals alone may enable the client to engage in purging behaviors without being observed. Choice C is incorrect as a high-calorie diet may exacerbate the client's concerns about weight gain. Choice D is incorrect because encouraging daily weigh-ins can reinforce obsessive thoughts about weight and body image.
3. Which action should the nurse implement first for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal?
- A. Apply vest or extremity restraints.
- B. Give an alpha-adrenergic blocker.
- C. Provide a diet high in protein and calories.
- D. Prepare the environment to prevent self-injury.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement first for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal is to prepare the environment to prevent self-injury. Clients undergoing alcohol withdrawal are at risk of seizures and other symptoms that may lead to self-harm. By ensuring a safe environment, the nurse can mitigate the risk of injury. Applying restraints (Choice A) should only be considered if less restrictive measures fail, as restraints can agitate the client further. Giving an alpha-adrenergic blocker (Choice B) may be part of the treatment plan for alcohol withdrawal but is not the first action to take. Providing a diet high in protein and calories (Choice C) is important for overall health but is not the priority when addressing immediate safety concerns.
4. A female client with severe depression who has been on antidepressants for two weeks suddenly becomes more energetic and talkative. What action should the RN take first?
- A. Encourage the client to participate in group activities.
- B. Monitor the client closely for signs of suicidal behavior.
- C. Praise the client for the apparent improvement.
- D. Discuss the client's progress with the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A sudden increase in energy and talkativeness in a client with severe depression who has been on antidepressants for a short period may indicate an increased risk of suicide due to the potential shift from profound sadness to motivation to act. The first action the RN should take is to monitor the client closely for signs of suicidal behavior. Encouraging participation in group activities or praising the client for the apparent improvement may overlook the potential risk of suicidal behavior. While discussing the client's progress with the healthcare provider is important, the immediate concern is to ensure the client's safety by closely monitoring for any signs of suicidal ideation or behavior.
5. The wife of a male client recently diagnosed with schizophrenia asks the nurse, 'What exactly is schizophrenia? Is my husband all right?' Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide to this family member?
- A. It sounds like you're worried about your husband. Let's sit down and talk.
- B. It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.
- C. Your husband will be just fine if he takes his medications regularly.
- D. I think you should talk to your husband's psychologist about this question.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best response for the LPN/LVN to provide to the wife of a male client diagnosed with schizophrenia is choice B: 'It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.' This response educates the wife about the nature of schizophrenia, explaining that it is caused by a chemical imbalance in the brain leading to disorganized thinking, helping her understand the condition better. Choice A does not directly address the question and instead shifts the focus to a different aspect. Choice C gives false reassurance without providing necessary information about schizophrenia. Choice D deflects the responsibility of providing information to the psychologist instead of addressing the wife's concerns directly.
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