Nursing Elites

1. A client with major depression who is taking fluoxetine calls the psychiatric clinic reporting being more agitated, irritable, and anxious than usual. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Tell the client to have a complete blood count (CBC) drawn
• B. Instruct the client to seek medical attention immediately
• C. Encourage them to take the medication at night with a snack
• D. Explain that these are common side effects of the medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increased agitation, irritability, and anxiety can be signs of serotonin syndrome or other serious side effects, not common side effects of fluoxetine. Instructing the client to seek medical attention immediately is crucial to address any potential serious adverse reactions. Option A is unnecessary as a CBC would not address the symptoms described. Option C is not the priority when serious side effects are suspected. Option D is incorrect as these symptoms should not be dismissed as common side effects.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with pulmonary edema who is reporting two-pillow orthopnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. The nurse identifies rapid shallow respirations and the use of accessory muscles. Which action should the nurse include in the client’s plan of care?

• A. Administer the prescribed amiodarone (Cordarone) immediately
• B. Institute a daily fluid restriction while the client is in the hospital
• C. Perform a blood draw for serum Troponin, CK, and CK-MB levels
• D. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position to facilitate perfusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering amiodarone is appropriate if arrhythmias are present in the context of pulmonary edema, as it helps manage irregular heart rhythms. In this case, the client is experiencing symptoms related to respiratory distress, and amiodarone can address potential arrhythmias contributing to the condition. Options B and D are not directly related to managing symptoms of pulmonary edema and do not address the underlying cause of the client's distress. Option C, performing blood tests for cardiac enzymes, is important for assessing possible myocardial damage but does not directly address the immediate respiratory distress associated with pulmonary edema.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in the left forearm. Which observation by the nurse indicates that the fistula is patent?

• A. Distended, tortuous veins in the left hand
• B. The left radial pulse is 2+ bounding
• C. Auscultation of a thrill on the left forearm
• D. Assessment of a bruit on the left forearm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Auscultation of a thrill on the left forearm is the correct observation indicating that the AV fistula is patent. A thrill is a palpable vibration or buzzing sensation felt over the fistula, indicating the presence of blood flow. Choices A, B, and D do not directly assess the patency of the fistula. Distended, tortuous veins in the left hand may indicate venous hypertension; a bounding radial pulse could suggest increased blood flow through an artery, but it does not confirm fistula patency; assessment of a bruit indicates turbulent blood flow, but it does not confirm patency.

4. A client has had several episodes of clear, watery diarrhea that started yesterday. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer a prescribed PRN antiemetic
• B. Assess the client for the presence of hemorrhoids
• C. Check the client’s hemoglobin level
• D. Review the client’s current list of medications

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement in a client experiencing clear, watery diarrhea is to review the client's current list of medications. Certain medications can cause diarrhea as a side effect, so identifying any potential culprits is essential. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) is not appropriate for diarrhea, as antiemetics are used to control nausea and vomiting, not diarrhea. Assessing for hemorrhoids (Choice B) is not the priority when the client is experiencing watery diarrhea; addressing the root cause is crucial. Checking the client’s hemoglobin level (Choice C) is not the immediate action needed for this situation as it does not directly address the cause of diarrhea.

5. Two days after an abdominal hysterectomy, an elderly female with diabetes has a syncopal episode. The nurse determines that her vital signs are within normal limits, but her blood sugar is 325 mg/dL or 18.04 mmol/L (SI). What intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer regular insulin per sliding scale
• B. Cancel the client's dinner tray
• C. Give the client 4 ounces (120 mL) of orange juice
• D. Administer the next scheduled dose of metformin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this case, the nurse should implement the intervention of administering regular insulin per sliding scale. High blood sugar levels, as indicated by a reading of 325 mg/dL, require insulin administration to prevent complications such as hyperglycemia. Canceling the client's dinner tray (choice B) would not address the immediate need to lower the blood sugar level. Giving the client orange juice (choice C) might further increase the blood sugar level as it contains sugar. Administering the next scheduled dose of metformin (choice D) is not appropriate as metformin is not typically used for acute management of high blood sugar levels.

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