HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam
1. A client with major depression who is taking fluoxetine calls the psychiatric clinic reporting being more agitated, irritable, and anxious than usual. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Tell the client to have a complete blood count (CBC) drawn
- B. Instruct the client to seek medical attention immediately
- C. Encourage them to take the medication at night with a snack
- D. Explain that these are common side effects of the medication
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Increased agitation, irritability, and anxiety can be signs of serotonin syndrome or other serious side effects, not common side effects of fluoxetine. Instructing the client to seek medical attention immediately is crucial to address any potential serious adverse reactions. Option A is unnecessary as a CBC would not address the symptoms described. Option C is not the priority when serious side effects are suspected. Option D is incorrect as these symptoms should not be dismissed as common side effects.
2. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted for frequent hyperglycemic episodes and a glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) of 10%. Insulin glargine 10 units subcutaneously once a day at bedtime and a sliding scale with insulin aspart q6h are prescribed. What action should the nurse include in this client’s plan of care?
- A. Perform fingerstick glucose assessment q6h with meals
- B. Mix bedtime dose of insulin glargine with insulin aspart sliding scale dose
- C. Review proper foot care and prevention of injury with the client
- D. Avoid contaminating the insulin aspart for IV use
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Performing fingerstick glucose assessments q6h with meals is essential in monitoring the client's blood glucose levels closely, especially when managing hyperglycemic episodes and adjusting insulin doses with a sliding scale. This action helps in determining the effectiveness of the prescribed insulin regimen. Reviewing proper foot care and preventing injury is important for long-term diabetic management but not the immediate priority in this scenario. Mixing insulin glargine with insulin aspart is not recommended, as they are different types of insulin with distinct mechanisms of action. Ensuring the availability of insulin aspart for IV use is not relevant to the client's current care plan.
3. Which client’s vital signs indicate increased intracranial pressure (ICP) that the nurse should report to the healthcare provider?
- A. P 70, BP 120/60 mmHg; P 100, BP 90/60 mmHg; rapid respirations.
- B. P 55, BP 160/70 mmHg; P 50, BP 194/70 mmHg; irregular respirations.
- C. P 130, BP 190/90 mmHg; P 136, BP 200/100 mmHg; Kussmaul respirations.
- D. P 110, BP 130/70 mmHg; P 100, BP 110/70 mmHg; shallow respirations.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer. The vital signs presented (P 130, BP 190/90 mmHg; P 136, BP 200/100 mmHg; Kussmaul respirations) indicate increased intracranial pressure (ICP), which can be a serious condition requiring immediate medical attention. Kussmaul respirations are deep and labored breathing patterns associated with metabolic acidosis and can be a late sign of increased ICP. Choices A, B, and D do not demonstrate vital sign patterns consistent with increased ICP. Choice A shows variations in blood pressure and pulse rate but does not provide a clear indication of increased ICP. Choice B displays fluctuations in blood pressure and pulse rate with irregular respirations, but these vital signs do not specifically suggest increased ICP. Choice D presents relatively stable vital signs with shallow respirations, which do not align with the typical vital signs seen in increased ICP.
4. When a UAP reports to the charge nurse that a client has a weak pulse with a rate of 44 beats per minute, what action should the charge nurse implement?
- A. Instruct the UAP to count the client's apical pulse rate for sixty seconds.
- B. Determine if the UAP also measured the client's capillary refill time.
- C. Assign a practical nurse (LPN) to determine if an apical radial pulse deficit is present.
- D. Notify the health care provider of the abnormal pulse rate and pulse volume.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to implement is to notify the health care provider of the abnormal pulse rate and pulse volume. A weak pulse with bradycardia (pulse rate of 44 beats per minute) requires immediate follow-up to investigate potential underlying issues. In this situation, it is crucial to involve the healthcare provider for further assessment and intervention. Instructing the UAP to count the client's apical pulse rate for sixty seconds (Choice A) may delay necessary actions. Determining capillary refill time (Choice B) is not directly related to addressing a weak pulse, and assigning an LPN to assess an apical radial pulse deficit (Choice C) is not as urgent as involving the healthcare provider.
5. A 60-year-old male with type 2 diabetes mellitus tells the nurse that he is going to join a gym and start working out. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?
- A. Recent serum cholesterol levels
- B. Presence of calf pain during exercise
- C. Average weight gain or loss in the last year
- D. Exercise tolerance test with EKG results
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to obtain in this scenario is the presence of calf pain during exercise. Calf pain during exercise could indicate peripheral vascular issues, such as peripheral artery disease, which is crucial to address before starting an exercise program. High cholesterol levels (choice A) may be important but are not as immediately relevant as assessing for peripheral vascular issues. Average weight gain or loss (choice C) may provide some insight into the patient's overall health status but is not as critical as assessing for potential vascular complications. An exercise tolerance test with EKG results (choice D) may be valuable in assessing cardiovascular fitness but is not as crucial as evaluating for peripheral vascular issues given the patient's symptoms.
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