a client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease copd is admitted to the hospital the client is experiencing difficulty breathing and
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI CAT Exam Quizlet

1. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the hospital. The client is experiencing difficulty breathing and is very anxious. The nurse notes that the client’s oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. Which action should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering supplemental oxygen is the first priority to address low oxygen saturation and ease breathing. In a client with COPD experiencing difficulty breathing and anxiety with oxygen saturation at 88%, providing supplemental oxygen takes precedence over other actions. Placing the client in a high Fowler’s position may help with breathing but does not address the immediate need for increased oxygenation. Performing a thorough respiratory assessment is important but should come after stabilizing the client's oxygen levels. Starting an IV infusion of normal saline is not the priority in this situation and does not directly address the client's respiratory distress.

2. A client with a severe prostatic infection that caused a blocked urethra is 3 days post-surgical urinary diversion. The healthcare provider directs the nurse to remove the suprapubic catheter to allow the client to void normally. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to use a 20 ml syringe to deflate the balloon first when removing a suprapubic catheter. This step is essential to ensure the safe removal of the catheter without causing any harm or discomfort to the client. Deflating the balloon allows for the catheter to be easily removed. Option A, cleansing the site around the catheter, is not the initial step in this process and can be done after catheter removal. Option C, clamping the catheter until the client voids naturally, is incorrect as it can lead to complications like urinary retention. Option D, emptying urine from the urinary drainage bag, is not the first step in removing the suprapubic catheter and does not address the need to deflate the balloon for safe removal.

3. When a UAP reports to the charge nurse that a client has a weak pulse with a rate of 44 beats per minute, what action should the charge nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to implement is to notify the health care provider of the abnormal pulse rate and pulse volume. A weak pulse with bradycardia (pulse rate of 44 beats per minute) requires immediate follow-up to investigate potential underlying issues. In this situation, it is crucial to involve the healthcare provider for further assessment and intervention. Instructing the UAP to count the client's apical pulse rate for sixty seconds (Choice A) may delay necessary actions. Determining capillary refill time (Choice B) is not directly related to addressing a weak pulse, and assigning an LPN to assess an apical radial pulse deficit (Choice C) is not as urgent as involving the healthcare provider.

4. An elderly client with Alzheimer's disease is being admitted to a long-term care facility. The client’s spouse expresses concern about the level of care the client will receive. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate response by the nurse in this situation is to reassure the spouse that the client will be well cared for and provide information about the facility’s care practices. This response not only addresses the spouse's concerns directly but also helps in building trust and confidence in the care provided. Choice B is not ideal as it may cause unnecessary worry about the fluctuating care levels. Choice C puts the responsibility on the spouse to monitor care, which may not always be feasible or appropriate. Choice D deflects the concern to other family members instead of addressing the spouse's worries directly.

5. A female client on the mental health unit frequently asks the nurse when she can be discharged. Then, becoming more anxious, she begins to pace the hallway. What intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Exploring the client’s reasons for wanting to be discharged should be the first intervention as it helps to address underlying anxieties and concerns. By understanding the client's motivations, the nurse can provide appropriate support and interventions. It can also reduce distress and improve the therapeutic relationship. Reviewing the treatment plan (Choice A) may be important but addressing the immediate distress takes precedence. Informing the healthcare provider (Choice B) can be considered later if necessary. Determining if the client has PRN medication (Choice C) is relevant, but exploring the underlying reasons for the desire to be discharged is more beneficial in this situation.

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