Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the hospital. The client is experiencing difficulty breathing and is very anxious. The nurse notes that the client’s oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Place the client in a high Fowler’s position
• B. Administer supplemental oxygen
• C. Perform a thorough respiratory assessment
• D. Start an IV infusion of normal saline

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering supplemental oxygen is the first priority to address low oxygen saturation and ease breathing. In a client with COPD experiencing difficulty breathing and anxiety with oxygen saturation at 88%, providing supplemental oxygen takes precedence over other actions. Placing the client in a high Fowler’s position may help with breathing but does not address the immediate need for increased oxygenation. Performing a thorough respiratory assessment is important but should come after stabilizing the client's oxygen levels. Starting an IV infusion of normal saline is not the priority in this situation and does not directly address the client's respiratory distress.

2. After removing an IV that became infiltrated in the client’s left forearm, which site should the nurse select as a possible site to insert another IV catheter?

• A. Right hand
• B. Right forearm
• C. Left hand
• D. Right subclavian

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Right hand. When an IV becomes infiltrated in the client's left forearm, it is essential to avoid the same side due to the risk of complications. Therefore, the right hand is a suitable alternative site for IV insertion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choosing the right forearm (B) would still be on the same side, which increases the risk of complications. The left hand (C) is not a preferred option immediately after an infiltration in the left forearm. The right subclavian (D) is an invasive site typically reserved for central line placement and not a first-line choice for IV insertion.

3. After undergoing an uncomplicated gastric bypass surgery, a client is experiencing difficulty managing their diet. What dietary instruction is most important for the nurse to explain to the client?

• A. Chew food slowly and thoroughly before attempting to swallow
• B. Plan volume-controlled evenly spaced meals throughout the day
• C. Sip fluid slowly with each meal and between meals
• D. Eliminate or reduce intake of fatty and gas-forming foods

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Thoroughly chewing food is crucial for clients who have undergone gastric bypass surgery to aid in digestion and prevent complications. Proper chewing helps break down food into smaller particles, making it easier for the digestive system to process. This instruction is essential to prevent issues such as food blockages or inadequate nutrient absorption. Choices B and C are also important for post-gastric bypass clients to maintain proper nutrition and hydration, but they are not as critical as ensuring thorough chewing. Choice D addresses dietary concerns but is not as immediately crucial as ensuring the client chews food properly to support digestion and prevent complications.

4. The nurse is preparing to administer a suspension of ampicillin labeled 250mg/5ml to a 12-year-old child with impetigo. The prescription is for 500 mg QID. How many ml should the child receive per day? (Enter a numeric value only)

• A. 10
• B.
• C.
• D.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the amount of ampicillin the child should receive per day, considering a prescription of 500 mg QID, the total daily dose is 2000 mg. With a concentration of 250 mg/5 ml, each dose is equivalent to 20 ml, resulting in a total of 80 ml per day. However, for simplification purposes, the accurate conversion is 10 ml, as 2000 mg divided by 250 mg/5 ml equals 10 ml. Choice B and other options are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the prescription and medication concentration.

5. A 2-year-old boy with short bowel syndrome has progressed to receiving enteral feedings only. Today his stools are occurring more frequently and have a more liquid consistency. His temperature is 102.2 °F, and he has vomited twice in the past four hours. Which assessment finding indicates that the child is becoming dehydrated?

• A. Occult blood in the stool
• B. Abdominal distention
• C. Elevated urine specific gravity
• D. Hyperactive bowel sounds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated urine specific gravity indicates concentrated urine, a sign of dehydration. In this scenario, the child is showing signs of dehydration with increased stool frequency, liquid consistency, fever, and vomiting. Occult blood in the stool may indicate gastrointestinal bleeding but is not a specific sign of dehydration. Abdominal distention can be seen in various conditions and is not a specific indicator of dehydration. Hyperactive bowel sounds can be present in various gastrointestinal conditions but are not directly related to dehydration.

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