Nursing Elites

1. What actions should the nurse take regarding an older adult male who had an abdominal cholecystectomy and has become increasingly confused and disoriented over the past 24 hours, found wandering into another client’s room and returned to his own room by the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (Select all that apply)

• A. Apply soft upper limb restraints and raise all four bed rails
• B. Report mental status change to the healthcare provider
• C. Assess the client’s breath sounds and oxygen saturation
• D. Assign the UAP to re-assess the client’s risk for falls

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this situation, the appropriate action for the nurse to take is to report the mental status change to the healthcare provider. Confusion and disorientation post-surgery can be indicative of various factors, such as electrolyte imbalances or respiratory issues, necessitating comprehensive assessment by the healthcare team. Applying restraints and raising bed rails may not address the underlying cause of the confusion, and assigning the UAP to reassess the client's risk for falls does not directly address the cognitive changes observed.

2. When should the nurse conduct an Allen’s test?

• A. When obtaining pulmonary artery pressures
• B. To assess for the presence of a deep vein thrombus in the leg
• C. Just before arterial blood gases are drawn peripherally
• D. Prior to attempting a cardiac output calculation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct time to conduct an Allen’s test is just before arterial blood gases are drawn peripherally. This test is performed to assess the adequacy of collateral circulation in the hand before obtaining arterial blood gases. Choice A is incorrect because an Allen’s test is not specifically done when obtaining pulmonary artery pressures. Choice B is incorrect because an Allen’s test is not used to assess deep vein thrombosis. Choice D is incorrect because an Allen’s test is not done specifically before attempting a cardiac output calculation.

3. The healthcare provider prescribes lidocaine (Lidoject-1) 100 mg IV push for ventricular tachycardia for an unconscious client. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Measure the client's cardiac output
• B. Assess neurological status q15 min
• C. Collect a blood specimen for serum potassium
• D. Infuse lidocaine (Lidoject-1) at 20 to 50 mg/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority intervention for the nurse is to assess the client's neurological status q15 min. This is crucial to monitor for potential side effects of lidocaine, especially its neurotoxic effects. While measuring the client's cardiac output and collecting a blood specimen for serum potassium are important assessments, assessing the neurological status is the priority when administering lidocaine. Infusing lidocaine at a specific rate should follow the initial assessment of the client's neurological status to ensure safety.

4. A client collapses while showering and is found by the nurse while making rounds. The client is not breathing and does not have a palpable pulse. The nurse obtains the Automated External Defibrillator (AED). What action should the nurse implement next?

• A. Follow the prompts of the AED
• B. Apply the AED pads to the client’s chest
• C. Wipe the client’s chest dry
• D. Move the client from the bathroom

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Applying the AED pads is the immediate next step after obtaining the AED in a cardiac arrest situation. Placing the pads correctly on the client's chest is crucial for the AED to analyze the heart rhythm accurately and deliver a shock if needed. Following the prompts of the AED comes after the pads are in place. Wiping the client's chest dry or moving the client from the bathroom are not priorities at this critical moment and may delay life-saving interventions.

5. Four clients arrive on the labor and delivery unit at the same time. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A 38-week primigravida who reports contractions occurring every 10 minutes
• B. A 39-week primigravida with a biophysical profile score of 5 out of 8
• C. A 41-week multigravida who is scheduled for induction of labor today
• D. A 36-week multigravida with a prescription for serial blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A biophysical profile score of 5 out of 8 indicates potential fetal distress, necessitating immediate assessment to ensure the well-being of the fetus. The other options, while important, do not suggest an immediate threat to the fetus' health. The 38-week primigravida with contractions every 10 minutes may be in early labor, the 41-week multigravida scheduled for induction can be assessed after addressing the immediate concern, and the 36-week multigravida with serial blood pressure can be assessed after ensuring the client with potential fetal distress is stabilized.

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