Nursing Elites

1. A 20-year-old male client is diagnosed with Ewing's sarcoma following examination for a knee injury. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide the client?

• A. Take analgesics regularly to reduce the pain
• B. Notify the healthcare provider if the swelling worsens
• C. Avoid weight-bearing until the injury heals
• D. Seek treatment for the sarcoma immediately

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to seek treatment for the sarcoma immediately. Ewing's sarcoma is an aggressive cancer, and prompt treatment is crucial for improving prognosis. Option A is incorrect because while pain management is important, addressing the underlying cause (sarcoma) is the priority. Option B is not as critical as seeking treatment for the sarcoma itself. Option C is not the most important instruction as the primary concern is addressing the cancer diagnosis.

2. An 18-year-old gravida 1, at 41-weeks gestation, is undergoing an oxytocin (Pitocin) induction and has an epidural catheter in place for pain control. With each of the last three contractions, the nurse notes a late deceleration. The client is repositioned and oxygen provided, but the late decelerations continue to occur with each contraction. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Prepare for immediate cesarean birth
• B. Turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion
• C. Notify the anesthesiologist that the epidural infusion needs to be disconnected
• D. Apply an internal fetal monitoring device and continue to monitor carefully

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, the presence of late decelerations during contractions indicates fetal compromise. To address this, the nurse's initial action should be to turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion. Oxytocin can contribute to uteroplacental insufficiency, leading to late decelerations. This intervention aims to improve fetal oxygenation and prevent further stress on the fetus. Immediate cesarean birth is not the first-line action unless other interventions fail. Notifying the anesthesiologist about disconnecting the epidural infusion is not the priority in this situation. Applying an internal fetal monitoring device is invasive and not the immediate step needed when late decelerations are present.

3. A 59-year-old male client is brought to the emergency room where he is assessed to have a Glasgow Coma Scale of 3. Based on this assessment, how should the nurse characterize the client's condition?

• A. The client is experiencing increased intracranial pressure
• B. He has a good prognosis for recovery
• C. This client is conscious, but is not oriented to time and place
• D. He is in a coma, and has a very poor prognosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A Glasgow Coma Scale of 3 indicates severe neurological impairment, suggesting a deep coma or even impending death. This client's condition is critical, and he has a very poor prognosis. Choice A is incorrect because a GCS of 3 does not directly indicate increased intracranial pressure. Choice B is incorrect as a GCS of 3 signifies a grave neurological status. Choice C is incorrect as a GCS of 3 represents a state of unconsciousness rather than being conscious but disoriented.

4. The nurse is preparing to administer an IM dose of vitamin B1 (Thiamine) to a male client experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal and peripheral neuritis. The client belligerently states, 'What do you think you're doing?' How should the nurse respond?

• A. I cannot give you this medication until you calm down.
• B. This shot will help relieve the pain in your feet.
• C. Would you prefer to learn to administer your own shot?
• D. You will feel calmer and less jittery after this shot.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because it addresses the client's concern by explaining that the shot will help relieve the pain in his feet, which is a symptom of peripheral neuritis. This response shows empathy and provides the client with a clear benefit of receiving the medication. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the client's immediate concern about the injection and its purpose, making them less suitable responses. Choice A focuses on the client's behavior rather than the therapeutic effect of the injection. Choice C shifts the responsibility to the client to administer the shot, which may not be appropriate in this situation. Choice D mentions feeling calmer and less jittery, which is not directly related to the client's current complaint of pain in the feet.

5. The nurse is planning care for a client with a stage III pressure ulcer. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the plan of care?

• A. Reposition the client every 2 hours
• B. Cleanse the ulcer with normal saline
• C. Apply a moisture-retentive dressing
• D. Measure the ulcer's depth and diameter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to measure the ulcer's depth and diameter. This intervention is crucial as it helps monitor healing progress and evaluate the effectiveness of the care plan. Measuring the ulcer provides valuable information about the wound's improvement or deterioration. Repositioning the client every 2 hours (Choice A) is important for preventing further skin breakdown but may not be the priority in this case. Cleansing the ulcer with normal saline (Choice B) is essential for wound care but not the most crucial intervention at this stage. Applying a moisture-retentive dressing (Choice C) can promote healing, but assessing the ulcer's dimensions is more critical for monitoring progress.

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