Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a mildly obese 35-year-old female client, the nurse is unable to locate the gallbladder when palpating below the liver margin at the lateral border of the rectus abdominal muscle. What is the most likely explanation for the failure to locate the gallbladder by palpation?

• A. The client is too obese.
• B. Palpating in the wrong location.
• C. The gallbladder is normal.
• D. Deeper palpation technique is needed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Obesity can make it difficult to palpate the gallbladder due to increased abdominal tissue, making it challenging to locate specific structures. Choice B is incorrect because the nurse is palpating in the correct location below the liver margin at the lateral border of the rectus abdominal muscle, where the gallbladder is typically located. Choice C is incorrect as the inability to palpate the gallbladder does not necessarily indicate abnormality; it may be due to anatomical variations or technical challenges. Choice D is incorrect as the issue lies more with the difficulty posed by excess adipose tissue rather than the need for deeper palpation techniques.

2. A client with diabetic peripheral neuropathy has been taking pregabalin for 4 days. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the medication is effective?

• A. Granulating tissue in foot ulcer
• B. Full volume of pedal pulse
• C. Reduced level of pain
• D. Improved visual activity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Reduced level of pain.' Pregabalin is used to manage neuropathic pain, so a reduction in pain indicates the medication's effectiveness in this case. Granulating tissue in a foot ulcer and the full volume of a pedal pulse are not direct indicators of pregabalin's effectiveness in managing neuropathic pain. Improved visual activity is not related to the effects of pregabalin in diabetic peripheral neuropathy.

3. Which assessment finding is most indicative of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a client’s right leg?

• A. Dorsiflexes the right foot and left foot on command
• B. A 3 by 5 cm ecchymosis area on the right calf
• C. Right calf is 3 cm larger in circumference than the left calf
• D. Bilateral lower extremities have 3+ pitting edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a significant difference in calf circumference between the legs is a classic sign of DVT. This is due to the obstruction of blood flow in the deep veins of the leg, leading to swelling in the affected limb. Choices A, B, and D are not typical findings of DVT. Choice A describes a neurological response, choice B indicates a bruise on the right calf, and choice D describes pitting edema in both lower extremities, which are not specific signs of DVT.

4. Based on the information provided in this client’s medical record during labor, which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Apply oxygen at 10 L per minute via mask
• B. Stop the oxytocin infusion
• C. Turn the client to the right lateral position
• D. Continue monitoring the progress of labor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Turning the client to the right lateral position is essential as it can improve fetal oxygenation and uterine blood flow, promoting better labor outcomes. This intervention helps relieve pressure on blood vessels, enhancing blood flow to the placenta and improving oxygen supply to the fetus. Applying oxygen at a specific rate may not address the underlying issue of compromised blood flow and oxygenation. Stopping the oxytocin infusion is not the priority unless medically indicated as it can affect labor progression. While monitoring the progress of labor is important, actively addressing the compromised fetal oxygenation and uterine blood flow by changing the client's position takes precedence in this scenario.

5. A 13-year-old girl, diagnosed with diabetes mellitus Type 1 at the age of 9, is admitted to the hospital in diabetic ketoacidosis. Which occurrence is the most likely cause of the ketoacidosis?

• A. Ate an extra peanut butter sandwich before gym class
• B. Incorrectly drew up and administered too much insulin
• C. Was not hungry, so she skipped eating lunch
• D. Has had a cold and ear infection for the past two days

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Incorrect insulin administration is a common cause of diabetic ketoacidosis. Administering too much insulin can lead to uncontrolled hyperglycemia, where the body starts breaking down fat for energy, resulting in the production of ketones. Choices A, C, and D are less likely to directly cause diabetic ketoacidosis. Eating an extra peanut butter sandwich, skipping lunch, or having a cold and ear infection would not directly lead to the metabolic derangements seen in diabetic ketoacidosis.

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