a client with hypertension is prescribed metoprolol the nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect
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Pharmacology HESI 2023 Quizlet

1. A client with hypertension is prescribed metoprolol. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that works by slowing the heart rate and reducing blood pressure. One of the potential side effects of metoprolol is bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial as it can be an adverse effect of this medication.

2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed apixaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bleeding. Apixaban is an anticoagulant medication that works by decreasing the blood's ability to clot. One of the significant side effects of apixaban is an increased risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in the urine or stool, or unusual bleeding or bruising. Monitoring for these signs is crucial to prevent or manage any potential complications associated with the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, headache, and nausea are not typically associated with apixaban use. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on monitoring for signs of bleeding in a client prescribed apixaban.

3. A client receiving enalapril reports a persistent dry cough. The nurse should explain that this side effect is related to which medication action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to increased levels of bradykinin. The accumulation of bradykinin is responsible for the persistent dry cough associated with ACE inhibitors like enalapril. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because enalapril does not directly affect the production of angiotensin II or aldosterone. Instead, it primarily impacts the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to bradykinin accumulation.

4. The healthcare provider notes that a client has a new prescription for 20 mEq of potassium. The IV site is inflamed but not tender, and has a blood flashback. What action should the healthcare provider take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The healthcare provider should contact the prescriber to clarify the prescription because an inflamed IV site may indicate potential issues with administering the medication. It is important to ensure that the prescription is appropriate and safe for the client before proceeding with administration. Option A is incorrect because administering potassium through an inflamed IV site can lead to further complications. Option C is not the best course of action as clarifying the prescription first is essential. Option D is also incorrect as the focus should be on ensuring the safety of the client before dispensing the medication.

5. The practical nurse administers lactulose to a client. Which client outcome would indicate a therapeutic response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lactulose is a type of laxative that works by preventing the absorption of ammonia in the colon, leading to increased water absorption in the stool and softening of the stool. The therapeutic response to lactulose is indicated by the passage of two to three soft stools per day, showing that the medication is effectively promoting bowel movements.

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