Nursing Elites

1. A client with hypertension is prescribed metoprolol. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that works by slowing the heart rate and reducing blood pressure. One of the potential side effects of metoprolol is bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial as it can be an adverse effect of this medication.

2. What action should be taken six days after starting a prescription for oral amoxicillin solution?

• A. Determine if any other symptoms have developed
• B. Advise the use of over-the-counter antipyretics
• C. Instruct the client to increase oral fluid intake
• D. Ask if the medication has been kept refrigerated

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is important to monitor for any new symptoms that may indicate a worsening condition or side effects when taking oral amoxicillin solution. This proactive approach helps in assessing the effectiveness and safety of the medication.

3. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed sertraline. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?

• A. Nausea
• B. Drowsiness
• C. Insomnia
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea. Sertraline, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), is known to commonly cause gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea. It is recommended for clients to take sertraline with food to help minimize this potential side effect. Choice B, Drowsiness, is less commonly associated with sertraline use. Insomnia, choice C, is not a typical side effect of sertraline; in fact, it may help improve sleep in some individuals. Headache, choice D, is also not a common side effect of sertraline.

4. A client is prescribed clonidine 0.1 mg/24 hours via a transdermal patch. Which client outcome would indicate that the medication is effective?

• A. No complaints of recent episodes of angina
• B. Change in peripheral edema from +3 to +1
• C. No complaints of new onset of nausea or vomiting
• D. Blood pressure changes from 180/120 to 140/70 mm Hg

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clonidine is an antihypertensive agent that works centrally to reduce blood pressure. A significant decrease in blood pressure, such as changing from 180/120 to 140/70 mm Hg, indicates that the medication is effectively managing hypertension. Monitoring blood pressure levels is crucial in assessing the response to clonidine therapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the therapeutic effect of clonidine in managing hypertension, which is the primary goal of the medication in this scenario.

5. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed lorazepam. The client should be informed that this medication may have which potential side effect?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drowsiness. Lorazepam, a medication commonly used to treat anxiety disorders, can lead to drowsiness as a common side effect. It is important for clients to be aware of this potential effect, and they should be advised to avoid activities like driving until they understand how the medication affects them. Dry mouth, nausea, and headache are possible side effects of other medications but are less commonly associated with lorazepam.

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