Nursing Elites

1. A client with hypertension is prescribed metoprolol. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that works by slowing the heart rate and reducing blood pressure. One of the potential side effects of metoprolol is bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial as it can be an adverse effect of this medication.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed cinacalcet. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypocalcemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hyperphosphatemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Cinacalcet is a medication that can lower calcium levels, leading to hypocalcemia. Monitoring for signs of low calcium levels such as muscle cramps, tingling sensations, and abnormal heart rhythms is crucial to prevent complications in clients with chronic kidney disease.\nIncorrect Choices Rationale: B) Hypercalcemia is the opposite effect of cinacalcet; C) Hyperkalemia and D) Hyperphosphatemia are not typically associated with cinacalcet use.

3. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed diazepam. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct. Diazepam, a medication commonly used to treat anxiety disorders, can lead to drowsiness as a potential side effect. It is important for clients taking diazepam to be cautious about activities that require alertness, such as driving, due to the risk of drowsiness associated with this medication. Choice B, dry mouth, is not typically associated with diazepam use. Choice C, nausea, is less common as a side effect of diazepam compared to drowsiness. Choice D, headache, is also less common and typically not a significant side effect of diazepam.

4. How do you determine if the medication is effective for a client with anemia secondary to chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

• A. Food diary shows increased consumption of iron-rich foods
• B. Reports of increased energy levels and decreased fatigue
• C. Hemoglobin level increased to 12 grams/dL
• D. Takes concurrent iron therapy without adverse effects

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. To assess the effectiveness of medication for anemia in a client with CKD, monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial. Hemoglobin levels directly indicate the response to treatment and improvement in the condition. An increase in hemoglobin level to 12 grams/dL suggests that the medication is effectively addressing the anemia associated with CKD. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased consumption of iron-rich foods, reports of increased energy levels and decreased fatigue, and tolerance to concurrent iron therapy without adverse effects are not direct indicators of the medication's effectiveness in treating anemia secondary to CKD.

5. The practical nurse administered carbidopa-levodopa to a client diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. Which outcome by the client would indicate a therapeutic response?

• A. Decreased blood pressure
• B. Lessening of tremors
• C. Increased salivation
• D. Increased attention span

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lessening of tremors. Carbidopa-levodopa increases the amount of levodopa to the CNS, providing more dopamine to the brain. Increased dopamine levels help alleviate Parkinson's symptoms such as tremors, involuntary movements, and gait abnormalities. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as carbidopa-levodopa is not expected to have a direct effect on blood pressure, salivation, or attention span in the context of treating Parkinson's disease.

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