a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease copd is prescribed tiotropium the nurse should instruct the client to report which potential side
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Pharmacology HESI 2023

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed tiotropium. The nurse should instruct the client to report which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry mouth. Tiotropium, a commonly prescribed medication for COPD, can cause dry mouth as a side effect. While it may not be severe, clients should report it if it becomes bothersome. Dry mouth is a common side effect of tiotropium due to its anticholinergic properties. Blurred vision, nausea, and tachycardia are not typically associated with tiotropium use in the context of COPD.

2. An adolescent client with a seizure disorder is prescribed the anticonvulsant medication carbamazepine. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider if the client develops which condition?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Develops a sore throat.' When a client on carbamazepine develops flu-like symptoms such as pallor, fatigue, sore throat, and fever, it could indicate blood dyscrasias (aplastic anemia, leukopenia, anemia, thrombocytopenia), which are potential adverse effects of the medication. These symptoms warrant immediate notification of the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, dizziness, and gingival hyperplasia are not commonly associated with carbamazepine use and do not indicate serious adverse effects that require immediate healthcare provider notification.

3. What instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client prescribed ranitidine for a peptic ulcer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed ranitidine for a peptic ulcer is to take the medication in the morning before breakfast. This timing helps reduce stomach acid production throughout the day, providing optimal therapeutic effects. Option B is incorrect because taking ranitidine with meals is not the recommended timing. Option C is incorrect as there is no specific contraindication against taking ranitidine with antacids. Option D is incorrect as the medication should not be taken at bedtime but rather in the morning before breakfast.

4. A client arrives at the emergency department experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The healthcare provider prescribes an insulin intravenous drip. Which type of insulin should the nurse locate for the registered nurse to mix into the intravenous fluids?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct insulin type for the nurse to mix into the intravenous fluids is regular insulin. In the scenario of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), rapid reduction of blood glucose levels is crucial. Regular insulin has a fast onset of action, making it suitable for intravenous administration to address the high blood sugar levels seen in DKA. Isophane, Glargine, and Detemir are not appropriate choices for intravenous administration in this emergency situation as they are intermediate-acting or long-acting insulins which do not provide the rapid response needed in DKA.

5. A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed carvedilol. The nurse should monitor the client for which adverse effect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypotension. Carvedilol, a beta-blocker, can lead to hypotension by blocking the effects of adrenaline, which can cause blood vessels to dilate and reduce blood pressure. While dizziness upon standing is a potential adverse effect of carvedilol, it is more specifically related to orthostatic hypotension, which is a form of hypotension that occurs when a person stands up from a sitting or lying position. Weight loss and bradycardia are not typically associated with carvedilol use. Therefore, the nurse should primarily monitor for hypotension in a client taking carvedilol.

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