Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed tiotropium. The nurse should instruct the client to report which potential side effect?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Nausea
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry mouth. Tiotropium, a commonly prescribed medication for COPD, can cause dry mouth as a side effect. While it may not be severe, clients should report it if it becomes bothersome. Dry mouth is a common side effect of tiotropium due to its anticholinergic properties. Blurred vision, nausea, and tachycardia are not typically associated with tiotropium use in the context of COPD.

2. A client with a history of angina is prescribed amlodipine. The practical nurse (PN) should monitor the client for which adverse effect?

• A. Headache
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, commonly causes peripheral edema as an adverse effect. This is due to its vasodilation effects on blood vessels, leading to fluid accumulation in the extremities. Monitoring for peripheral edema is crucial to assess the client's response to amlodipine and ensure timely intervention if needed.

3. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed sulfasalazine. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Take this medication with meals.
• B. Avoid sunlight while taking this medication.
• C. Report any signs of infection to the healthcare provider.
• D. Take this medication on an empty stomach.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the client's teaching plan regarding sulfasalazine is to take the medication with meals. Taking sulfasalazine with food helps to minimize gastrointestinal upset, which is a common side effect of the medication. Choice B is incorrect because avoiding sunlight is not specifically related to sulfasalazine. Choice C is important but not directly related to the administration of sulfasalazine. Choice D is incorrect because sulfasalazine should be taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects.

4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed apixaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Weight gain
• C. Headache
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bleeding. Apixaban is an anticoagulant medication that works by decreasing the blood's ability to clot. One of the significant side effects of apixaban is an increased risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in the urine or stool, or unusual bleeding or bruising. Monitoring for these signs is crucial to prevent or manage any potential complications associated with the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, headache, and nausea are not typically associated with apixaban use. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on monitoring for signs of bleeding in a client prescribed apixaban.

5. A client with schizophrenia is prescribed risperidone. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

• A. I can stop taking this medication once I feel better.
• B. This medication may cause drowsiness.
• C. This medication might make me feel drowsy.
• D. I should avoid alcohol while taking this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients should not stop taking risperidone abruptly once they feel better without consulting their healthcare provider.

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