HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test Pharmacology
1. A client who received a prescription for cyclosporine ophthalmic emulsion for dry eyes asks the practical nurse (PN) if it is safe to continue using artificial tears. What information should the PN provide?
- A. Avoid using artificial tears because they decrease the efficacy of cyclosporine.
- B. Discontinue the use of both products if transient blurring occurs after administration.
- C. Allow a 15-minute interval between the administration of cyclosporine and artificial tears.
- D. Discontinue the use of cyclosporine and artificial tears when tear production reaches a normal level.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to allow a 15-minute interval between the administration of cyclosporine and artificial tears. Cyclosporine, an ophthalmic emulsion that increases tear production, can be used in conjunction with artificial tears as long as the products are administered 15 minutes apart. This interval helps to prevent any potential interactions between the two products and ensures optimal effectiveness of cyclosporine for treating dry eyes.
2. A client with hypertension is prescribed clonidine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Dizziness
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Clonidine, a medication used to treat hypertension, can cause a lowering of blood pressure leading to hypotension as a potential side effect. Monitoring for hypotension is essential to prevent complications such as dizziness, fainting, or falls. Option B, Tachycardia, is incorrect as clonidine typically causes bradycardia or a decreased heart rate. Option C, Dizziness, can occur due to hypotension caused by clonidine. Option D, Hyperglycemia, is not a common side effect associated with clonidine use.
3. The healthcare professional is caring for a patient with a new order for an oral laxative. Which is a contraindication in administering an oral laxative?
- A. Cardiac problems
- B. Abdominal pain of unknown origin
- C. Several hemorrhoids
- D. Chronic constipation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering an oral laxative to a patient with abdominal pain of unknown origin is contraindicated because it could be a sign of a more serious underlying condition that needs immediate medical evaluation. Giving a laxative in such a situation without proper diagnosis could potentially worsen the patient's condition or delay appropriate treatment. Choice A (Cardiac problems) is not a contraindication for an oral laxative unless the patient has a specific cardiac condition that interacts with the laxative. Choice C (Several hemorrhoids) and Choice D (Chronic constipation) are not contraindications for administering an oral laxative.
4. A client who takes metformin for diabetes mellitus type 2 is nothing by mouth (NPO) for surgery. What pre-op prescription should the practical nurse (PN) anticipate for this client's glucose management?
- A. NPO except for metformin and regular snacks
- B. NPO except for oral antidiabetic agent
- C. Novolin-N insulin subcutaneously twice daily
- D. Regular insulin subcutaneously per sliding scale
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client taking metformin for diabetes mellitus type 2 is NPO for surgery, it is crucial to manage their glucose levels effectively. The best approach in this situation is to prescribe regular insulin subcutaneously according to a sliding scale based on the client's blood glucose levels. This method allows for precise adjustment of insulin doses to maintain blood glucose within the target range while the client is unable to take oral medications. Choices A and B are incorrect because metformin is typically held when a client is NPO, and oral antidiabetic agents may not provide sufficient glucose control. Choice C is incorrect as Novolin-N insulin given twice daily may not offer the flexibility needed for glucose management in a surgical setting where the client's intake is restricted.
5. A client is prescribed amitriptyline for depression. The practical nurse (PN) should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Insomnia
- B. Weight loss
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Increased appetite.' Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, is known to commonly cause increased appetite, leading to weight gain. Monitoring for increased appetite is crucial as it can impact the client's overall health and well-being. Choice A, 'Insomnia,' is less likely as amitriptyline is more associated with sedative effects. Choice B, 'Weight loss,' is incorrect as weight gain is a more common side effect. Choice C, 'Dry mouth,' is a potential side effect of amitriptyline, but it is not directly related to increased appetite, which is the primary concern in this case.
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