a client with diabetes mellitus type 1 is prescribed insulin lispro the nurse should instruct the client to administer this medication at which time
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HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank

1. A client with diabetes mellitus type 1 is prescribed insulin lispro. When should the nurse instruct the client to administer this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that should be administered 5-10 minutes before meals. This timing helps synchronize the peak action of insulin with the rise in blood glucose levels after eating, effectively managing postprandial hyperglycemia. Choice B, administering 15 minutes after meals, is incorrect because rapid-acting insulins like lispro are meant to act quickly to cover the rise in blood glucose levels after meals. Choices C and D are also incorrect as they do not align with the rapid onset of action required to manage postprandial hyperglycemia in patients with diabetes mellitus type 1.

2. A client with hypertension is prescribed atenolol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed atenolol, a beta-blocker, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia, which is a potential side effect. Atenolol works by slowing the heart rate, so monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage bradycardia promptly.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed cinacalcet. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Cinacalcet is a medication that can lower calcium levels, leading to hypocalcemia. Monitoring for signs of low calcium levels such as muscle cramps, tingling sensations, and abnormal heart rhythms is crucial to prevent complications in clients with chronic kidney disease.\nIncorrect Choices Rationale: B) Hypercalcemia is the opposite effect of cinacalcet; C) Hyperkalemia and D) Hyperphosphatemia are not typically associated with cinacalcet use.

4. A client with chronic heart failure is prescribed furosemide. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client with chronic heart failure is prescribed furosemide, a diuretic, the nurse should be vigilant for potential adverse effects. Furosemide can lead to excessive fluid loss, resulting in dehydration. Dehydration is a significant concern as it can exacerbate heart failure symptoms. Additionally, furosemide can cause electrolyte imbalances, particularly affecting potassium and sodium levels. Monitoring for signs of dehydration and electrolyte disturbances is crucial to prevent complications and ensure the client's safety and well-being. Increased blood glucose levels and weight gain are not commonly associated with furosemide use in heart failure patients, making choices A and D incorrect.

5. A client has sublingual nitroglycerine tablets prescribed to treat angina. The nurse realizes the client requires further education if the client makes which statements? (Select one that doesn't apply.)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Nitroglycerine sublingual tablets need to be replaced every 3 to 5 months, not every year, making statement A incorrect. While nitroglycerine can cause a headache, it is important to continue taking the prescribed nitroglycerine if the client has angina, making statement B accurate. Nitroglycerine tablets do not cause addiction, so statement C is correct. Dizziness and weakness are associated with the hypotensive effect of nitroglycerine; therefore, if the client feels dizzy when taking them, they should sit down or lie down until they feel better. Taking nitroglycerine tablets before an activity known to cause angina can help prevent angina attacks.

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