a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed digoxin the nurse should monitor for which potential side effect
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HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed digoxin. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bradycardia. Digoxin can lead to bradycardia due to its effect on slowing down the heart rate, which can be dangerous in a client with atrial fibrillation. Monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because digoxin is not known to cause tachycardia, headache, or hyperglycemia as common side effects.

2. Phenazopyridine is commonly prescribed for clients with urinary tract infections (UTI). Which statement by the practical nurse describes the purpose for the administration of phenazopyridine?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Phenazopyridine, a urinary analgesic, is utilized to alleviate the pain associated with urinary tract infections (UTIs) like burning, pain, urgency, and frequent voiding. The administration of phenazopyridine can cause the urine to turn a bright red-orange color. It is recommended to take this medication with food to reduce gastric irritation. Phenazopyridine should only be used for a maximum of 2 days when taken alongside an antibacterial agent, which is typically prescribed for about 2 weeks to treat the underlying infection.

3. A client is prescribed phenobarbital 100 mg daily for the treatment of seizures. Which statement made by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the medication phenobarbital?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Phenobarbital should be taken at the same time every day to maintain blood levels and enhance compliance. Common side effects of phenobarbital include drowsiness, lethargy, dizziness, and nausea; therefore, it is best to take it before bedtime to minimize these effects and improve sleep quality. Choice B is incorrect because phenobarbital does not affect the color of urine. Choice C is incorrect because there is no need to fast before taking phenobarbital. Choice D is incorrect because taking extra doses without healthcare provider guidance can lead to overdose and adverse effects.

4. When educating a client about the adverse effects of conjunctivitis, what is a serious condition that requires prompt attention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Epigastric pain unrelieved by antacids is a concerning symptom that may indicate a more serious underlying condition such as a perforated ulcer. This symptom requires immediate medical attention to prevent further complications.

5. A client is receiving metronidazole for Clostridium difficile pseudomembranous colitis. Which information should the nurse include in this client's medication teaching plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct information to include in the medication teaching plan for a client receiving metronidazole for Clostridium difficile pseudomembranous colitis is to avoid alcohol consumption. Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction when combined with alcohol, leading to symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, flushing, and headache. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to abstain from alcohol while taking this medication to prevent adverse effects and ensure treatment effectiveness. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Drinking adequate water daily is a general health recommendation but not specific to metronidazole use. Taking with food is not necessary for metronidazole, and in fact, it is recommended to be taken on an empty stomach for better absorption. Storing the medication in the refrigerator is also incorrect, as metronidazole should be stored at room temperature.

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