Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed digoxin. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Headache
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bradycardia. Digoxin can lead to bradycardia due to its effect on slowing down the heart rate, which can be dangerous in a client with atrial fibrillation. Monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because digoxin is not known to cause tachycardia, headache, or hyperglycemia as common side effects.

2. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed salmeterol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Insomnia
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is dry mouth. Salmeterol, a long-acting beta agonist used in COPD, can lead to dry mouth as a common side effect. Nurses should monitor for this side effect and advise clients to report it if it becomes bothersome.

3. Prior to administration of the initial dose of the GI agent misoprostol, which information should the nurse obtain from the client?

• A. Taking an anti-emetic medication
• B. History of glaucoma
• C. Currently pregnant
• D. Allergy to aspirin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. It is crucial for the nurse to obtain information regarding the client's pregnancy status before administering misoprostol, as this medication is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its potential to cause uterine contractions. This can lead to serious complications such as miscarriage or premature birth. Therefore, assessing whether the client is currently pregnant is essential to ensure the safe administration of misoprostol. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the administration of misoprostol. While knowing if the client is taking an anti-emetic medication may be relevant to prevent drug interactions, a history of glaucoma and allergy to aspirin are not primary concerns before administering misoprostol.

4. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed quetiapine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Hair loss
• C. Insomnia
• D. Tremors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with bipolar disorder is prescribed quetiapine, the nurse should monitor for weight gain as a potential adverse effect. Quetiapine is known to commonly cause weight gain, which can have implications for the client's overall health. Regular monitoring of weight can help in early detection and management of this side effect.

5. What is important information to provide to a young adult female client planning to become pregnant?

• A. Discontinue this medication one month before.
• B. Breastfeeding is not recommended while.
• C. Baseline liver function results must be obtained.
• D. Do not take multiple vitamins that contradict.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is crucial to advise the client to discontinue medication one month before planning to become pregnant to prevent potential harm to the fetus. This precaution is essential as certain medications can have adverse effects on the developing baby. By stopping the medication ahead of time, the client can reduce the risk of any complications during pregnancy.

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