Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed digoxin. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Headache
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bradycardia. Digoxin can lead to bradycardia due to its effect on slowing down the heart rate, which can be dangerous in a client with atrial fibrillation. Monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because digoxin is not known to cause tachycardia, headache, or hyperglycemia as common side effects.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypotension
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Erythropoietin is a medication commonly used to stimulate red blood cell production in individuals with chronic kidney disease. One of the potential adverse effects of erythropoietin therapy is hypertension. The increased production of red blood cells can lead to elevated blood pressure levels. Therefore, monitoring for hypertension is essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being while on this medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypotension, tachycardia, and bradycardia are not typically associated with erythropoietin therapy. Hypertension is the primary adverse effect to monitor in this case.

3. A client with hypertension is prescribed clonidine. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Dizziness
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed clonidine, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia as a potential side effect. Clonidine can lead to a decrease in heart rate, thus causing bradycardia. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial to detect and manage this adverse effect.

4. A male client receives a scopolamine transdermal patch 2 hours before surgery. Four hours after surgery, the client tells the nurse that he is experiencing pain and asks why the patch is not working. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Advise the client that the effects of the medication have worn off
• B. Explain that the medication is not given to relieve pain
• C. Check for the correct placement of the patch on the client
• D. Offer to apply a new transdermal patch to address the pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Scopolamine is not a pain medication; it is commonly used to prevent nausea and vomiting, particularly in surgical settings. It works on the central nervous system to help control these symptoms, not to relieve pain. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to explain to the client that the medication is not intended to relieve pain but rather to manage other specific symptoms. Checking the correct placement of the patch is also important to ensure proper administration, but addressing the misconception about the medication's purpose is the priority in this scenario. Offering to apply a new patch would not address the client's pain as scopolamine is not meant for pain relief. Advising the client that the effects have worn off is inaccurate because the medication is not used for pain management.

5. A client diagnosed with a sinus infection is prescribed ampicillin sodium. The practical nurse (PN) should instruct the client to notify the healthcare provider immediately if which symptom occurs?

• A. Rash
• B. Nausea
• C. Headache
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A - Rash. Rash is the most common adverse side effect of all generations of penicillin, indicating an allergy to the medication. An allergic reaction could lead to anaphylactic shock, a severe and potentially life-threatening emergency. It is crucial for the client to inform the healthcare provider promptly if a rash develops after taking ampicillin sodium.

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