Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed digoxin. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Headache
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bradycardia. Digoxin can lead to bradycardia due to its effect on slowing down the heart rate, which can be dangerous in a client with atrial fibrillation. Monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because digoxin is not known to cause tachycardia, headache, or hyperglycemia as common side effects.

2. A client who received a prescription for cyclosporine ophthalmic emulsion for dry eyes asks the practical nurse (PN) if it is safe to continue using artificial tears. What information should the PN provide?

• A. Avoid using artificial tears because they decrease the efficacy of cyclosporine.
• B. Discontinue the use of both products if transient blurring occurs after administration.
• C. Allow a 15-minute interval between the administration of cyclosporine and artificial tears.
• D. Discontinue the use of cyclosporine and artificial tears when tear production reaches a normal level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to allow a 15-minute interval between the administration of cyclosporine and artificial tears. Cyclosporine, an ophthalmic emulsion that increases tear production, can be used in conjunction with artificial tears as long as the products are administered 15 minutes apart. This interval helps to prevent any potential interactions between the two products and ensures optimal effectiveness of cyclosporine for treating dry eyes.

3. How should the healthcare provider schedule the administering of propylthiouracil (PTU)?

• A. Offer both drugs together with a meal
• B. Give parental dose once every 24 hours
• C. Schedule both medications at bedtime
• D. Administer iodine one hour before PTU

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering iodine one hour before PTU is crucial to ensure proper absorption and effectiveness of PTU. This timing helps optimize the therapeutic benefits of PTU by allowing it to be absorbed efficiently without interference from iodine, ultimately leading to better treatment outcomes for the patient. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because offering both drugs together with a meal, giving parental dose once every 24 hours, and scheduling both medications at bedtime do not address the specific timing requirement of administering iodine before PTU for optimal absorption.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed ipratropium. The nurse should assess the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Nausea
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Cough
• D. Palpitations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dry mouth. Ipratropium can cause dry mouth as a common side effect due to its anticholinergic effects. Anticholinergic medications like ipratropium can lead to decreased salivary flow, resulting in dry mouth. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because nausea, cough, and palpitations are not commonly associated with ipratropium use.

5. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed salmeterol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Insomnia
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is dry mouth. Salmeterol, a long-acting beta agonist used in COPD, can lead to dry mouth as a common side effect. Nurses should monitor for this side effect and advise clients to report it if it becomes bothersome.

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