HESI LPN
HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank
1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed digoxin. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Headache
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bradycardia. Digoxin can lead to bradycardia due to its effect on slowing down the heart rate, which can be dangerous in a client with atrial fibrillation. Monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because digoxin is not known to cause tachycardia, headache, or hyperglycemia as common side effects.
2. Prior to administering an oral dose of methylprednisolone, what is most important for the nurse to do?
- A. Administer the medication with a glass of milk
- B. Notify the healthcare provider of the finding
- C. Begin tapering the drug dose per protocol
- D. Teach the clients about foods high in calcium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering methylprednisolone with food or milk is important as it can help reduce gastrointestinal side effects associated with the medication. This practice is commonly recommended to minimize stomach upset and irritation that may occur when taking methylprednisolone on an empty stomach. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to provide the medication with a glass of milk to enhance patient comfort and adherence to the treatment regimen. Choice B is incorrect as there is no indication in the question stem that suggests a need to notify the healthcare provider before administering the medication with food or milk. Choice C is incorrect because tapering the drug dose per protocol is not the immediate action needed prior to administering the first dose of methylprednisolone. Choice D is irrelevant to the administration of methylprednisolone and not the most important action to take before giving the medication.
3. A 43-year-old female client who has had a thyroidectomy due to Grave's disease is prescribed a thyroid replacement hormone. Which signs and symptoms are associated with thyroid hormone toxicity and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider?
- A. Tinnitus and dizziness
- B. Tachycardia and chest pain
- C. Dry skin and intolerance to cold
- D. Weight gain and increased appetite
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia and chest pain. Signs and symptoms of thyroid hormone toxicity, especially in cases of excessive dosage, include tachycardia (rapid heart rate) and chest pain. These symptoms are consistent with hyperthyroidism, where the body is receiving an excessive amount of thyroid hormone. It is crucial to report these symptoms promptly to the healthcare provider to adjust the medication dosage and prevent potential complications. Choices A, C, and D are not indicative of thyroid hormone toxicity. Tinnitus and dizziness (Choice A) are not typical symptoms of thyroid hormone toxicity. Dry skin and intolerance to cold (Choice C) are more common in hypothyroidism, while weight gain and increased appetite (Choice D) are associated with hypothyroidism as well, not thyroid hormone toxicity.
4. During a home visit, a client with a history of angina reports frequent headaches. The client recently started a new prescription for diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Explain the importance of obtaining a blood sample promptly to test for medication toxicity
- B. Consult with the healthcare provider regarding the necessity of an opioid analgesic for pain relief
- C. Recommend the client to discontinue the medication until contacting the healthcare provider
- D. Instruct the client on the use of acetaminophen every 4-6 hours as needed for headaches
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to instruct the client to use acetaminophen for headaches. Acetaminophen is a suitable and safer option for managing headaches associated with calcium channel blockers like diltiazem. It is essential to avoid medications that can interact negatively with diltiazem, such as opioid analgesics. Discontinuing the medication abruptly without consulting the healthcare provider is not recommended. Monitoring for medication toxicity through blood samples is not typically indicated for managing headaches in this scenario.
5. A client with osteoporosis is prescribed raloxifene. The nurse should reinforce which instruction?
- A. Take this medication at the same time each day.
- B. Take this medication with a full glass of water.
- C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Take this medication immediately after a meal.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed raloxifene, a medication used for osteoporosis, is to take it at the same time each day. This consistency helps maintain steady blood levels of the medication, enhancing its effectiveness in managing the condition. Choice B is incorrect because raloxifene does not require a full glass of water for administration. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene should not be taken on an empty stomach. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene should not be taken immediately after a meal.
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