Nursing Elites

1. A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is known to cause a persistent dry cough as a common side effect. Monitoring for this adverse effect is crucial because it may lead to non-adherence to the medication. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is a potential side effect of potassium-sparing diuretics, not ACE inhibitors like lisinopril. Hypernatremia (choice C) refers to elevated sodium levels and is not a common side effect of lisinopril. Hyponatremia (choice D) is a condition characterized by low sodium levels and is not a typical side effect of lisinopril. Therefore, the nurse should focus on assessing the client for a dry cough when taking lisinopril.

2. A patient with irritable bowel syndrome starts a new prescription for dicyclomine, an anticholinergic medication. The client reports the onset of sensitivity to light and a dry mouth. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Determine if the medication is being taken correctly
• B. Provide instructions on managing these side effects
• C. Schedule an appointment for evaluation by the healthcare provider
• D. Advise stopping the medication until the unpleasant side effects wear off

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is to provide instructions on managing these side effects. Sensitivity to light and dry mouth are common side effects of anticholinergic medications like dicyclomine. It is essential for the nurse to educate the patient on strategies to cope with these side effects, such as staying hydrated to address dry mouth and wearing sunglasses to reduce sensitivity to light. Option A is not the priority as the side effects are expected with this medication and do not necessarily indicate incorrect use. Option C is not immediately necessary as the side effects are common and can be managed without a healthcare provider evaluation. Option D is not recommended unless advised by the healthcare provider as abruptly stopping the medication can lead to worsening symptoms or withdrawal effects.

3. When a client with hypertension is prescribed losartan, what potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Dry cough
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dry cough. Losartan, an angiotensin II receptor blocker, can lead to a dry cough as a potential side effect. This occurs due to the drug's effect on the bradykinin pathway in the lungs. Monitoring for a dry cough is essential as it may indicate the need for further evaluation or medication adjustment to manage this adverse reaction.

4. The practical nurse administered carbidopa-levodopa to a client diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. Which outcome by the client would indicate a therapeutic response?

• A. Decreased blood pressure
• B. Lessening of tremors
• C. Increased salivation
• D. Increased attention span

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lessening of tremors. Carbidopa-levodopa increases the amount of levodopa to the CNS, providing more dopamine to the brain. Increased dopamine levels help alleviate Parkinson's symptoms such as tremors, involuntary movements, and gait abnormalities. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as carbidopa-levodopa is not expected to have a direct effect on blood pressure, salivation, or attention span in the context of treating Parkinson's disease.

5. The nurse is studying antacids that contain magnesium and calcium for the pharmacology exam. The student nurse remembers that these antacids should be used with caution in patients with which condition?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Renal failure
• C. Heart failure
• D. Peptic ulcer disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Magnesium and calcium can accumulate in patients with renal failure, leading to toxicity.

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