Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed an antacid for the treatment of peptic ulcer disease. What is the action of this medication that is effective in treating the client's ulcer?

• A. Decrease in the production of gastric secretions
• B. Production of an adherent barrier over the ulcer
• C. Maintenance of a gastric pH of 3.5 or above
• D. Decrease in the gastric motor activity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Antacids work by neutralizing gastric acids and maintaining a gastric pH of 3.5 or above. This pH level is crucial to prevent the activation of pepsinogen, a precursor to pepsin, which can further damage the ulcer. Choice A is incorrect because antacids do not directly decrease the production of gastric secretions; they neutralize existing acid. Choice B is incorrect as antacids do not form a physical barrier over the ulcer but rather neutralize the acid around it. Choice D is also incorrect as antacids do not affect gastric motor activity but focus on reducing acidity in the stomach.

2. A client with schizophrenia is prescribed risperidone. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

• A. I can stop taking this medication once I feel better.
• B. This medication may cause drowsiness.
• C. This medication might make me feel drowsy.
• D. I should avoid alcohol while taking this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients should not stop taking risperidone abruptly once they feel better without consulting their healthcare provider.

3. A client whose seizure disorder has been managed with phenytoin is admitted to the emergency department with status epilepticus. Which drug should the practical nurse anticipate being prescribed for administration to treat these seizures?

• A. Phenytoin
• B. Diazepam
• C. Phenobarbital
• D. Carbamazepine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, which is a life-threatening condition of prolonged seizures, rapid intervention is crucial. Diazepam is the drug of choice for treating status epilepticus due to its fast onset of action and effectiveness in stopping seizures. It acts by enhancing the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA to suppress seizure activity quickly. Phenytoin, although used for long-term seizure control, has a slower onset of action and is not the first-line medication for managing status epilepticus.

4. A client is taking levodopa-carbidopa for Parkinson's disease. The nurse should include which instruction when educating the client about this medication?

• A. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration.
• B. Take medication with food to improve absorption.
• C. Take medication at bedtime to avoid daytime drowsiness.
• D. It can cause nausea and dizziness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking levodopa-carbidopa for Parkinson's disease is to increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration. Levodopa-carbidopa should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset and improve absorption. Taking medication at bedtime is not necessary to avoid daytime drowsiness. It is crucial to prevent dehydration due to the medication's side effects. Choice B is incorrect because the medication should be taken with food, not at bedtime. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication with food, rather than on an empty stomach, aids in absorption and reduces gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect as it states the side effects of the medication rather than providing specific instructions on its administration.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer, the nurse should monitor for hypocalcemia. Sevelamer works by binding dietary phosphorus in the gastrointestinal tract, which can lead to decreased calcium absorption and potentially cause hypocalcemia.

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