a client is prescribed amitriptyline for depression the practical nurse pn should monitor for which potential side effect
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HESI LPN

Pharmacology HESI Practice

1. A client is prescribed amitriptyline for depression. The practical nurse (PN) should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Increased appetite.' Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, is known to commonly cause increased appetite, leading to weight gain. Monitoring for increased appetite is crucial as it can impact the client's overall health and well-being. Choice A, 'Insomnia,' is less likely as amitriptyline is more associated with sedative effects. Choice B, 'Weight loss,' is incorrect as weight gain is a more common side effect. Choice C, 'Dry mouth,' is a potential side effect of amitriptyline, but it is not directly related to increased appetite, which is the primary concern in this case.

2. Which nursing intervention is most important when caring for a client receiving aspirin 600mg po QID?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the stool for occult blood when caring for a client receiving aspirin 600mg po QID. Aspirin can lead to gastrointestinal bleeding, and checking for occult blood in the stool is essential to monitor for this serious adverse effect. Monitoring temperature, assessing pain, and checking for dyspepsia and nausea are important interventions but not as critical as monitoring for gastrointestinal bleeding when a client is receiving aspirin.

3. A client with a history of stroke is prescribed clopidogrel. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works to prevent blood clots, but it can also increase the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in urine or stool, or unusual bleeding from the gums. Prompt identification and management of bleeding are crucial to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while bruising and other symptoms can occur as a result of bleeding, they are not the primary side effect to monitor for with clopidogrel. Nausea and headache are less commonly associated with clopidogrel use compared to bleeding.

4. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed lorazepam. The client should be informed that this medication may have which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drowsiness. Lorazepam, a medication commonly used to treat anxiety disorders, can lead to drowsiness as a common side effect. It is important for clients to be aware of this potential effect, and they should be advised to avoid activities like driving until they understand how the medication affects them. Dry mouth, nausea, and headache are possible side effects of other medications but are less commonly associated with lorazepam.

5. The healthcare provider notes that a client has a new prescription for 20 mEq of potassium. The IV site is inflamed but not tender, and has a blood flashback. What action should the healthcare provider take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The healthcare provider should contact the prescriber to clarify the prescription because an inflamed IV site may indicate potential issues with administering the medication. It is important to ensure that the prescription is appropriate and safe for the client before proceeding with administration. Option A is incorrect because administering potassium through an inflamed IV site can lead to further complications. Option C is not the best course of action as clarifying the prescription first is essential. Option D is also incorrect as the focus should be on ensuring the safety of the client before dispensing the medication.

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