HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI Practice
1. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Dry mouth
- B. Hair loss
- C. Weight gain
- D. Tremors
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tremors. When a client is prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder, one common side effect to monitor for is tremors. Tremors are a known adverse effect of lithium therapy and should be monitored closely by healthcare providers. Choice A, dry mouth, is not typically associated with lithium use. Hair loss, as in choice B, is not a common side effect of lithium. Weight gain, as mentioned in choice C, can occur with some medications used to treat bipolar disorder, but it is not a prominent side effect of lithium specifically.
2. A healthcare professional prepares to administer a scheduled dose of labetalol by mouth to a client with hypertension. The client's heart rate is 48 beats/min, respirations are 16 breaths/min, and blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg.
- A. Administer the dose and monitor the client's blood pressure regularly
- B. Apply a telemetry monitor before administering the dose
- C. Assess for orthostatic hypotension before administering the dose
- D. Withhold the scheduled dose and notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client's low heart rate of 48 beats/min indicates bradycardia, a potential side effect of labetalol. Administering the dose in this case could further lower the heart rate, potentially causing adverse effects. Therefore, it is crucial to withhold the scheduled dose and notify the healthcare provider for further assessment and guidance. Choice A is incorrect because administering the dose without addressing the bradycardia can exacerbate the condition. Choice B is not relevant in this situation as telemetry monitoring is not the priority. Choice C is also not the priority in this case, as the focus should be on the client's bradycardia and the potential adverse effects of administering labetalol.
3. A client with schizophrenia is prescribed risperidone. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. I can stop taking this medication once I feel better.
- B. This medication may cause drowsiness.
- C. This medication might make me feel drowsy.
- D. I should avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clients should not stop taking risperidone abruptly once they feel better without consulting their healthcare provider.
4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed digoxin. The nurse should monitor for which sign of digoxin toxicity?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Nausea
- D. Vomiting
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a medication used to treat atrial fibrillation, can lead to toxicity manifesting as various cardiac dysrhythmias, with bradycardia being a notable indicator. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial as it can indicate the need for dosage adjustment or discontinuation of digoxin to prevent adverse effects. Tachycardia, nausea, and vomiting are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity, making them incorrect choices for monitoring in a client receiving this medication.
5. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed glyburide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. Weight gain
- C. Nausea
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct potential adverse effect to monitor for when a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed glyburide is hypoglycemia. Glyburide can lead to hypoglycemia, particularly in individuals who do not eat regularly, by stimulating the release of insulin from the pancreas, which can lower blood sugar levels. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia, such as confusion, sweating, and palpitations, to prevent complications and provide timely interventions.
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