HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI 55 Questions 2023
1. A client with hypertension is prescribed atenolol. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hypotension
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is prescribed atenolol, a beta-blocker medication used to treat hypertension, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia as a potential side effect. Atenolol works by slowing the heart rate, and one common adverse effect is bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate. Monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because atenolol typically does not cause tachycardia, hypotension, or hyperglycemia as primary side effects. Instead, bradycardia is a common concern due to the drug's mechanism of action in reducing heart rate.
2. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Hair loss
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight gain. Olanzapine is known to cause weight gain as a common side effect. This weight gain can increase the risk of metabolic issues such as diabetes and dyslipidemia. Monitoring the client's weight regularly is essential to detect and address any weight changes promptly.
3. When a patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed ipratropium, the nurse should monitor for potential side effects. The correct answer is dry mouth. Ipratropium can cause dry mouth as a common side effect due to its anticholinergic effects. This side effect can impact the patient's oral health and comfort, requiring close monitoring and appropriate interventions.
- A. Dry mouth
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Insomnia
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Ipratropium is an anticholinergic medication commonly used in COPD. One of the most common side effects of anticholinergics is dry mouth due to the inhibition of salivary gland function. Tachycardia (Choice B) is not a typical side effect of ipratropium. Insomnia (Choice C) is also not a common side effect of this medication. Increased appetite (Choice D) is not associated with ipratropium use. Therefore, the correct side effect to monitor for in a patient prescribed ipratropium is dry mouth.
4. A client with a diagnosis of depression is prescribed fluoxetine. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. I should take this medication in the morning with food.
- B. It may take 1 to 4 weeks to notice improvement in symptoms.
- C. I can stop taking this medication once I feel better.
- D. This medication might make me feel drowsy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients prescribed fluoxetine should not stop taking the medication once they feel better without consulting their healthcare provider. It is essential to complete the full course of treatment as directed by the healthcare provider to prevent relapse or potential worsening of symptoms. Abruptly stopping fluoxetine can lead to withdrawal symptoms and may not effectively manage the condition. Therefore, it is crucial for clients to follow the healthcare provider's guidance regarding the duration of treatment with fluoxetine.
5. A client with a history of stroke is prescribed dabigatran. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Dry mouth
- B. Weight gain
- C. Headache
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Headache. Dabigatran, an anticoagulant, can cause headache as a potential side effect. Headache is important to monitor as it may indicate adverse effects or complications that need attention. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, weight gain, and dizziness are not commonly associated with dabigatran use.
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