Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection (UTI). What instruction should the practical nurse provide to the client to ensure the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Increase fluid intake.
• C. Complete the full course of the medication.
• D. Avoid dairy products.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The practical nurse should instruct the client to complete the full course of the antibiotic to ensure the infection is fully treated and to prevent the development of antibiotic resistance. Completing the full course of antibiotics helps to eradicate the infection completely and reduces the risk of bacteria developing resistance to the medication. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to ensuring the effectiveness of the antibiotic. While taking medication with food or increasing fluid intake can be beneficial in general, the crucial instruction in this case is to complete the full course of the antibiotic.

2. A practical nurse (PN) is providing education to a client who is starting therapy with metformin for type 2 diabetes. What side effect should the client be instructed to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Muscle pain
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Nausea.' Nausea is a common side effect of metformin, especially when the medication is first started. It is essential for the client to report persistent or severe nausea to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Weight gain (Choice A) is not a typical side effect of metformin; in fact, metformin is associated with weight loss or weight neutrality. Hypoglycemia (Choice B) is a potential side effect of some diabetes medications, but metformin does not typically cause hypoglycemia. Muscle pain (Choice C) is not a common side effect of metformin; it is more commonly associated with other medications like statins.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed sotalol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Headache
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Sotalol, a medication used for atrial fibrillation, is known to cause bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate. Monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect promptly. Choice B, Tachycardia, is incorrect as sotalol is more likely to cause bradycardia. Choice C, Headache, and Choice D, Hyperglycemia, are unrelated side effects of sotalol and are not commonly associated with this medication.

4. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed apixaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Increased risk of bleeding
• B. Decreased risk of bleeding
• C. Increased risk of infection
• D. Decreased risk of infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of bleeding. Apixaban is an anticoagulant medication that works by preventing blood clots. While this is beneficial for individuals with a history of deep vein thrombosis, it also increases the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, or blood in the urine or stool. Monitoring for bleeding is crucial to ensure the client's safety and to take appropriate actions if necessary. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because apixaban does not decrease the risk of bleeding, increase the risk of infection, or decrease the risk of infection. The primary concern when administering apixaban is monitoring for potential bleeding complications.

5. A client whose seizure disorder has been managed with phenytoin is admitted to the emergency department with status epilepticus. Which drug should the practical nurse anticipate being prescribed for administration to treat these seizures?

• A. Phenytoin
• B. Diazepam
• C. Phenobarbital
• D. Carbamazepine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, which is a life-threatening condition of prolonged seizures, rapid intervention is crucial. Diazepam is the drug of choice for treating status epilepticus due to its fast onset of action and effectiveness in stopping seizures. It acts by enhancing the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA to suppress seizure activity quickly. Phenytoin, although used for long-term seizure control, has a slower onset of action and is not the first-line medication for managing status epilepticus.

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