Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of depression is prescribed escitalopram. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

• A. I should take this medication in the morning with food.
• B. This medication may take 1 to 4 weeks to notice improvement in symptoms.
• C. I can stop taking this medication once I feel better.
• D. This medication might make me feel drowsy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: It is crucial for clients to understand that they should not discontinue escitalopram abruptly, even if they start feeling better. Stopping the medication suddenly can lead to withdrawal symptoms or a relapse of depression. It is essential to complete the full course of treatment as prescribed by the healthcare provider to ensure the best outcomes and prevent potential complications.

2. A client with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. What instruction should the practical nurse (PN) include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Take the medication with meals to decrease gastrointestinal upset.
• B. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• C. Avoid alcohol while taking the medication.
• D. Take the medication with meals to increase absorption.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed metformin is to take the medication with a full glass of water. This helps ensure proper ingestion and absorption of the medication. While taking metformin with meals can help reduce gastrointestinal side effects, the primary focus should be on adequate hydration and absorption by taking it with water. Avoiding alcohol while taking metformin is also important as alcohol can increase the risk of lactic acidosis when combined with metformin. Taking the medication with meals to increase absorption is incorrect as metformin should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset, not to increase absorption.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed lanthanum carbonate. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lanthanum carbonate is prescribed in chronic kidney disease to bind dietary phosphorus in the gastrointestinal tract. This action can lead to decreased phosphorus absorption and potential hypercalcemia due to the increased serum calcium levels. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs and symptoms of hypercalcemia, such as confusion, fatigue, and muscle weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as lanthanum carbonate's mechanism of action does not lead to hypocalcemia, hyperkalemia, or hypokalemia.

4. A female client who started chemotherapy three days ago for cancer of the breast calls the clinic reporting that she is so upset she cannot sleep. The client has several PRN medications available. Which drug should the nurse instruct her to take?

• A. Ondansetron 8mgPO no
• B. Lorazepam 2mg PO bedtime
• C. Oxycodone, acetylsalicylic acid one tablet q4 hours PRN
• D. Acetaminophen, diphenhydramine 2 capsules bedtime

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acetaminophen and diphenhydramine help with sleep without severe side effects.

5. A client has metoprolol prescribed. The nurse should reinforce instructions that this medication has which potential adverse effect?

• A. Anxiety
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Sexual dysfunction
• D. Acute renal failure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sexual dysfunction. Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, can cause sexual dysfunction as an adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect. Choice A is incorrect because metoprolol can cause depression, not anxiety. Choice B is incorrect as tachycardia is not an adverse effect of metoprolol; instead, it can lead to bradycardia. Choice D is incorrect because acute renal failure is not typically associated with the use of beta-blockers.

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