a client with heart failure is receiving digoxin lanoxin the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following signs of digoxin toxicity
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Community Health HESI Exam

1. A client with heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following signs of digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradycardia. Digoxin toxicity often presents with bradycardia, which is a common sign of toxicity associated with this medication. Tachycardia (Choice A) is not typically seen with digoxin toxicity. Hypotension (Choice B) can occur but is less specific to digoxin toxicity. Hyperglycemia (Choice D) is not a typical sign of digoxin toxicity. Therefore, monitoring for bradycardia is crucial in clients receiving digoxin to detect toxicity early.

2. During the care of a client with Legionnaire's disease, which finding would require the nurse's immediate attention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A decrease in chest wall expansion suggests that the client may be experiencing a serious complication, such as worsening pneumonia or respiratory failure, requiring immediate medical attention. This finding indicates a potential decrease in lung function, which could lead to respiratory distress. Pleuritic pain on inspiration may be related to the disease process but does not indicate an immediate need for intervention. Dry mucus membranes in the mouth may require attention but are not as critical as a decrease in chest wall expansion. A decrease in respiratory rate could be concerning but is not as urgent as a decrease in chest wall expansion, which directly impacts respiratory function.

3. An example of secondary prevention strategy would be:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Screening for breast cancer is a secondary prevention strategy aimed at early detection, which falls under secondary prevention as it focuses on early identification and intervention before the disease progresses. Choice B is incorrect as it refers to palliative care for symptom management in terminal cancer patients, which is not a secondary prevention strategy. Choice C is incorrect as educating teenagers about condom use is a primary prevention strategy to prevent the initial occurrence of STDs rather than intervening after exposure, making it a primary, not a secondary prevention strategy. Choice D is incorrect as there is a valid example of a secondary prevention strategy provided in choice A.

4. What are the requirements and qualifications for a regional nurse supervisor?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To become a regional nurse supervisor, one must possess a BSN and RN credentials to ensure clinical competency. Additionally, a minimum of 5 years of experience in public health is required to demonstrate a solid understanding of the field. Lastly, holding a Master's degree in public health is essential for leadership and decision-making roles. Therefore, all the choices (BSN, RN; at least 5 years of experience in public health; Master's in public health) are necessary qualifications for a regional nurse supervisor.

5. While performing an initial assessment on a newborn following a breech delivery, the nurse suspects hip dislocation. Which of the following is most suggestive of the abnormality?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Irregular hip symmetry, such as asymmetry in the gluteal folds, is a common sign of hip dislocation in newborns. This finding indicates a potential abnormality in hip development and requires further evaluation and possible treatment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Flexion of lower extremities is a normal newborn reflex, the Ortolani response is used to detect hip dysplasia rather than hip dislocation, and a lengthened leg of the affected side is not typically associated with hip dislocation in newborns.

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