Nursing Elites

1. In combating myths and misconceptions about family planning in the community, what should you do first as a health educator?

• A. Identify the influential leaders of the community
• B. Select an approach to be used in correcting myths and misconceptions
• C. Decide who will be involved in the conference
• D. Identify myths and misconceptions prevailing in the community and their sources

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to identify myths and misconceptions prevailing in the community and their sources. This is the initial step in addressing misconceptions effectively. By understanding the specific myths and where they originate from, a health educator can tailor their approach to correct these misconceptions. Choice A is incorrect because while influential leaders can play a role, identifying myths comes first. Choice B is incorrect as selecting an approach should come after understanding the myths. Choice C is incorrect as deciding who will be involved in a conference is not the primary step in combating myths and misconceptions.

2. A client with chronic congestive heart failure should be instructed to contact the home health nurse if which finding occurs?

• A. Weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a 48-hour period
• B. Urinating 4 to 5 times a day
• C. A significant decrease in appetite
• D. Appearance of non-pitting ankle edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A rapid weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a 48-hour period may indicate fluid retention and worsening heart failure, requiring prompt medical evaluation and intervention. This finding is crucial in managing chronic congestive heart failure as it signifies a potential exacerbation of the condition. Choices B, C, and D are less concerning in this context. Urinating 4 to 5 times a day is within the normal range for most individuals and may not be directly related to heart failure. A significant decrease in appetite may be due to various factors and might not be an immediate cause for concern in heart failure patients. The appearance of non-pitting ankle edema, although related to heart failure, is a more chronic and less urgent symptom when compared to a rapid weight gain, which requires immediate attention.

3. The nurse is teaching a community group about risks of cardiovascular disease. Several clients ask the nurse to determine their risk. Which client should the nurse identify as having the greatest risk for cardiovascular disease?

• A. A male with a serum cholesterol level of 199 mg/dl.
• B. A female with a serum cholesterol level of 201 mg/dl.
• C. A male with a low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level of 200 mg/dl.
• D. A female with a low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level of 160 mg/dl.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A male with a high LDL level (200 mg/dl) has a significant risk for cardiovascular disease. High levels of LDL cholesterol are associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis and heart disease. Choices A, B, and D have serum cholesterol levels that are slightly elevated but are not as specific or directly linked to cardiovascular risk as high LDL levels. Therefore, the client with the high LDL level is at the greatest risk for cardiovascular disease.

4. A client was admitted with a diagnosis of pneumonia. When auscultating the client's breath sounds, the nurse hears inspiratory crackles in the right base. Temperature is 102.3 degrees Fahrenheit orally. What finding would the nurse expect?

• A. Flushed skin
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Mental confusion
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mental confusion. In this scenario, the client's high fever and pneumonia diagnosis indicate an infection. Infections, especially in older adults, can lead to mental confusion due to the body's systemic response to the infection. Flushed skin (choice A) is more commonly associated with fever but does not specifically relate to the client's condition. Bradycardia (choice B) and hypotension (choice D) are less likely findings in a client with pneumonia and a high fever; instead, tachycardia and increased blood pressure are more commonly seen in response to infection.

5. What does the infant mortality rate measure?

• A. dying for every thousand of the population
• B. dying from 0-5 years old in every thousand population
• C. dying in the first 4 weeks in every thousand children born alive that year
• D. dying before 1 year old in every thousand children born alive that year

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The infant mortality rate measures the number of deaths occurring before 1 year old per 1000 live births. This is a crucial indicator of a population's health status and access to healthcare for infants. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the infant mortality rate specifically focuses on deaths within the first year of life, not the entire population or different age ranges.

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