in combating myths and misconceptions about family planning in the community the first thing that you should do as health educator is to
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Community Health HESI Study Guide

1. In combating myths and misconceptions about family planning in the community, what should you do first as a health educator?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to identify myths and misconceptions prevailing in the community and their sources. This is the initial step in addressing misconceptions effectively. By understanding the specific myths and where they originate from, a health educator can tailor their approach to correct these misconceptions. Choice A is incorrect because while influential leaders can play a role, identifying myths comes first. Choice B is incorrect as selecting an approach should come after understanding the myths. Choice C is incorrect as deciding who will be involved in a conference is not the primary step in combating myths and misconceptions.

2. What does the infant mortality rate measure?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The infant mortality rate measures the number of deaths occurring before 1 year old per 1000 live births. This is a crucial indicator of a population's health status and access to healthcare for infants. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the infant mortality rate specifically focuses on deaths within the first year of life, not the entire population or different age ranges.

3. Which of the following activities is an example of tertiary prevention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, physical therapy. Tertiary prevention focuses on rehabilitation and treatment to prevent complications from a disease or injury. Physical therapy falls under this category as it helps individuals recover and improve functionality after an illness or injury. Choices A, B, and C are not examples of tertiary prevention. Health education (choice A) is more aligned with primary prevention by promoting healthy behaviors to prevent disease onset. Regular exercise (choice B) can be categorized under both primary and secondary prevention as it aims to prevent disease development and detect conditions early. Screening tests (choice C) are part of secondary prevention as they aim to detect diseases at an early stage for prompt treatment.

4. A client with schizophrenia is receiving haloperidol (Haldol). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Extrapyramidal symptoms. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms such as tardive dyskinesia and akathisia. These side effects are common with the use of typical antipsychotics. Choice A, Tachycardia, is not a common side effect of haloperidol. Choice B, Hypotension, is also not a typical side effect associated with haloperidol use. Choice D, Hyperglycemia, is not directly linked to haloperidol administration, as it is more commonly associated with other medications like atypical antipsychotics or certain medical conditions.

5. A community hospital is an example of which level of health care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A community hospital is categorized under secondary level health care. Secondary level health care facilities, like community hospitals, provide specialized outpatient care, diagnostic services, and treatment that are more complex than what is offered in primary health care settings. Choice B, primary health care, refers to basic and routine health care services typically provided by family doctors or general practitioners, which is not the level of care provided by community hospitals. Tertiary level care (choice C) involves highly specialized and complex medical services such as neurosurgery or organ transplants, which are beyond the scope of services provided by community hospitals. Intermediate level care (choice D) is not a recognized category in the hierarchy of health care levels.

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