NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Questions
1. What is a priority goal of involuntary hospitalization of the severely mentally ill client?
- A. Re-orientation to reality
- B. Elimination of symptoms
- C. Protection from harm to self or others
- D. Return to independent functioning
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority goal of involuntary hospitalization of severely mentally ill clients is to ensure protection from harm to self or others. Involuntary hospitalization is often necessary for individuals who are deemed dangerous to themselves or others or who are considered gravely disabled. Re-orientation to reality, elimination of symptoms, and return to independent functioning are important aspects of mental health care but are not the primary goals of involuntary hospitalization. The main focus during involuntary hospitalization is to address safety concerns and prevent harm.
2. When assessing the mental status of a young school-aged child, which action would be important for the nurse to take?
- A. Listen to the parents' description of the child's behavior.
- B. Compare the child's function from one occasion to another.
- C. Engage the parents in a discussion about the child's feelings.
- D. Determine the child's mental status through direct questioning.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To accurately assess the mental status of a young school-aged child, it is crucial for the nurse to compare the child's function over time. This approach allows for a more objective evaluation of the child's mental status. While listening to the parents' description of the child's behavior can provide valuable insights, it may be biased and subjective. Engaging parents in discussions about the child's feelings is important for overall understanding but may not directly assess the child's mental status. Directly questioning the child about their mental status can be threatening and may lead to anxiety, making it a less optimal approach compared to observing and comparing the child's function over time.
3. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?
- A. Olanzapine
- B. Meperidine
- C. Ziprasidone
- D. Haloperidol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.
4. A 17-year-old Asian client is being seen for lower abdominal pain in the right quadrant. The client is accompanied by his parents. The nurse notes that the client's father does not make eye contact and shows little response when told that the client will need surgery. Which of the following is the most appropriate action of the nurse?
- A. Contact an interpreter to give the information again in the father's native language
- B. Continue to provide information about surgery to both the client and his parents
- C. Call social services to evaluate the parent's standard of care
- D. Contact the physician about postponing the surgery
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nurses may work with clients who have varying cultural beliefs. Because of this, nurses must remain aware of the cultural practices associated with certain ethnic groups. Asian Americans may avoid eye contact as a sign of respect; additionally, emotional responses may be avoided except for in private situations. If this family did not have a language barrier, the nurse should continue to provide appropriate information about the surgery and recognize the cultural differences that exist. Contacting an interpreter is not necessary as there was no mention of a language barrier. Calling social services to evaluate the parent's standard of care is premature and not within the nurse's immediate scope of practice. Contacting the physician about postponing the surgery is not warranted based on the information provided.
5. Ten minutes after signing an operative permit for a fractured hip, an older client states, 'The aliens will be coming to get me soon!' and falls asleep. Which action should the nurse implement next?
- A. Make the client comfortable and allow the client to sleep.
- B. Assess the client's neurologic status.
- C. Notify the surgeon about the comment.
- D. Ask the client's family to co-sign the operative permit.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client's statement about aliens coming to get them could indicate confusion, which raises concerns about their neurologic status. Since informed consent for surgery requires the client to be mentally competent, the nurse should assess the client's neurologic status to ensure they understand and can legally provide consent. Option A of making the client comfortable and letting them sleep does not address the potential neurologic issue. If the nurse finds the client to be confused, it is essential to inform the surgeon and seek permission from the next of kin if necessary. Therefore, assessing the client's neurologic status is the priority to ensure the client's ability to consent to the surgery.
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