Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes mellitus presents with confusion and diaphoresis. What is the priority nursing action?

• A. Check the blood glucose level
• B. Administer insulin immediately
• C. Offer a high-protein snack
• D. Place the client in a supine position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the blood glucose level. In a client with diabetes mellitus presenting with confusion and diaphoresis, it is important to assess the blood glucose level first to determine if the symptoms are due to hypoglycemia. Administering insulin immediately (Choice B) without knowing the blood glucose level can worsen the condition if the client is hypoglycemic. Offering a high-protein snack (Choice C) is not appropriate as the severity of hypoglycemia is unknown, and placing the client in a supine position (Choice D) is not the priority action for these symptoms.

2. The healthcare provider prescribes the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) naproxen (Naprosyn) 500 mg PO twice a day for a client with osteoarthritis. During a follow-up visit one month later, the client tells the nurse, 'The pills don't seem to be working. They are not helping the pain at all.' Which factor should influence the nurse’s response?

• A. Noncompliance is probably impacting the optimum medication effectiveness.
• B. Drug dosage is inadequate and needs to be increased to four times a day.
• C. The drug needs 4 to 6 weeks to reach therapeutic levels in the bloodstream.
• D. NSAID response is variable, and another NSAID may be more effective.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. NSAID response can vary among individuals, and sometimes a different NSAID may be more effective for a specific client. In this case, since the current NSAID (naproxen) is not providing pain relief, it is reasonable to consider switching to another NSAID. Choice A is incorrect because there is no information provided to suggest noncompliance. Choice B is incorrect as increasing the dosage without assessing the response may lead to unnecessary side effects. Choice C is incorrect because although it may take time for NSAIDs to reach therapeutic levels, lack of pain relief after a month is a valid reason to consider changing the medication rather than waiting longer.

3. The nurse provides dietary instructions about iron-rich foods to a client with iron deficiency anemia. Which food selection made by the client indicates a need for additional instructions?

• A. Liver.
• B. Oranges.
• C. Leafy green vegetables.
• D. Kidney beans.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oranges. Oranges are not a rich source of iron. Iron-rich foods include liver, leafy green vegetables, and kidney beans. Oranges are a good source of vitamin C but are not high in iron. Therefore, if the client selects oranges as an iron-rich food, it indicates a need for additional instructions on choosing foods high in iron.

4. An older male client tells the nurse that he is losing sleep because he has to get up several times at night to go to the bathroom, that he has trouble starting his urinary stream, and that he does not feel like his bladder is ever completely empty. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Collect a urine specimen for culture analysis
• B. Review the client's fluid intake prior to bedtime
• C. Palpate the bladder above the symphysis pubis
• D. Obtain a fingerstick glucose level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Palpating the bladder above the symphysis pubis is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario. It helps assess for urinary retention, which is a common issue in older males presenting with symptoms like difficulty starting urinary stream and feeling of incomplete bladder emptying. Collecting a urine specimen for culture analysis (Choice A) may be necessary in other situations like suspected urinary tract infection. Reviewing the client's fluid intake (Choice B) is important but does not directly address the current issue of urinary retention. Obtaining a fingerstick glucose level (Choice D) is not relevant to the client's urinary symptoms.

5. Which statement correctly explains the etiology of Down syndrome?

• A. There is an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.
• B. There is a missing chromosome on the 21st pair.
• C. There are two pairs of the 21st chromosome.
• D. The 21st chromosome pair is missing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'There is an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.' Down syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21, known as trisomy 21. This additional genetic material leads to the characteristics associated with Down syndrome. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Down syndrome is not due to a missing chromosome or having two pairs of the 21st chromosome; it results from the presence of an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.

Similar Questions