Nursing Elites

1. What are early signs of varicella disease?

• A. High fever over 101°F (38.3°C)
• B. General malaise
• C. Increased appetite
• D. Crusty sores

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct early sign of varicella disease is general malaise. During the prodromal period, patients may experience low-grade fever, malaise, and anorexia. Increased appetite and crusty sores are not typically early signs of varicella. The appearance of lesions occurs later in the course of the disease.

2. A client with asthma is prescribed a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) with albuterol. Which instruction is essential for the nurse to provide?

• A. Use the inhaler only before bedtime
• B. Shake the inhaler well before use
• C. Exhale fully before inhaling the medication
• D. Take two puffs every hour

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Shake the inhaler well before use.' This instruction is crucial as shaking the inhaler ensures the proper mixing of the medication, which is essential for its effective delivery. Option A is incorrect because using the inhaler only before bedtime may not provide adequate relief during the day. Option C is incorrect as exhaling fully is a good practice but not the most essential instruction. Option D is incorrect as taking two puffs every hour may exceed the recommended dosage and lead to adverse effects.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is advised to follow a low-phosphorus diet. Which food should the client avoid?

• A. Milk
• B. Apples
• C. Carrots
• D. Rice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Milk. Milk is high in phosphorus and should be avoided in a low-phosphorus diet for clients with chronic kidney disease. Choice B (Apples), C (Carrots), and D (Rice) are not significant sources of phosphorus and can be included in moderation in a low-phosphorus diet. Apples and carrots are generally considered healthy choices for most individuals, while rice is a staple food that is low in phosphorus and can be part of a renal diet.

4. What are the clinical manifestations of otitis media?

• A. Earache, wheezing, vomiting
• B. Coughing, rhinorrhea, headache
• C. Fever, irritability, pulling on ear
• D. Wheezing, cough, drainage in ear canal

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever, irritability, pulling on the ear. Clinical manifestations of otitis media commonly include fever, irritability, and children may show signs of pulling or rubbing their ears. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A includes wheezing and vomiting, which are not typical symptoms of otitis media. Choice B includes coughing, rhinorrhea, and headache, which are more commonly associated with upper respiratory infections rather than otitis media. Choice D includes wheezing, cough, and drainage in the ear canal, which are not typical clinical manifestations of otitis media.

5. Ten hours following thrombolysis for an ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), a client is receiving a lidocaine infusion for isolated runs of ventricular tachycardia. Which finding should the nurse document in the EMR as a therapeutic response to the lidocaine infusion?

• A. Stabilization of BP ranges
• B. Cessation of chest pain
• C. Reduced heart rate
• D. Decreased frequency of episodes of VT

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Decreased frequency of ventricular tachycardia (VT) episodes indicates that the lidocaine infusion is effectively managing the ventricular tachycardia. Stabilization of BP ranges (choice A) may not directly correlate with the therapeutic response to lidocaine for VT. Cessation of chest pain (choice B) may indicate pain relief but does not specifically address the effectiveness of lidocaine for VT. Reduced heart rate (choice C) is not a direct indicator of the response to lidocaine for managing VT.

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