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Medical Surgical HESI
1. What are early signs of varicella disease?
- A. High fever over 101°F (38.3°C)
- B. General malaise
- C. Increased appetite
- D. Crusty sores
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct early sign of varicella disease is general malaise. During the prodromal period, patients may experience low-grade fever, malaise, and anorexia. Increased appetite and crusty sores are not typically early signs of varicella. The appearance of lesions occurs later in the course of the disease.
2. While walking to the mailbox, an older adult male experiences sudden chest tightness and drives himself to the emergency department. When the client gets up to the desk of the triage nurse, he says his heart is pounding out of his chest as he clutches his chest and falls to the floor. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Prepare for cardiac defibrillation.
- B. Apply cardiac monitor leads.
- C. Obtain troponin serum levels.
- D. Palpate the client’s artery.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Palpating the client's artery is the priority intervention in this scenario because it helps determine if there is a pulse, which is crucial information in emergency situations like this. If the client is pulseless, immediate initiation of CPR is necessary. Applying cardiac monitor leads or obtaining troponin serum levels can wait until the presence of a pulse is confirmed. Cardiac defibrillation is not indicated without first assessing the client's pulse and cardiac rhythm.
3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via a nasal cannula. Which assessment finding indicates a potential complication of oxygen therapy?
- A. Increased respiratory rate
- B. Decreased level of consciousness
- C. Improved oxygen saturation
- D. Complaints of dry mouth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In clients with COPD, oxygen therapy can lead to a decrease in the respiratory drive caused by the removal of the hypoxic drive. This can result in carbon dioxide retention, leading to a decreased level of consciousness. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because an increased respiratory rate is typically a sign of hypoxia, improved oxygen saturation is a positive response to oxygen therapy, and complaints of dry mouth are not directly related to oxygen therapy complications in this scenario.
4. Which individual has the highest risk for developing skin cancer?
- A. A 16-year-old dark-skinned female who tans in tanning beds once a week.
- B. A 65-year-old fair-skinned male who is a construction worker
- C. A 25-year-old dark-skinned male whose mother had skin cancer.
- D. A 70-year-old fair-skinned female who works as a secretary.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, a 65-year-old fair-skinned male who is a construction worker. Fair-skinned individuals are at higher risk of developing skin cancer due to prolonged sun exposure. Construction workers are often exposed to the sun for long periods, further increasing the risk. Choices A, C, and D are less likely to develop skin cancer compared to choice B due to factors such as age, frequency of tanning bed use, and occupation.
5. A male client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia has a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter. The client asks the nurse why he keeps getting these massive infections. Which pathophysiologic mechanism should the nurse describe in response to the client's question?
- A. Bone marrow suppression of white blood cells causes insufficient cells to phagocytize organisms.
- B. Exposure to multiple environmental infectious agents overburdens the immune system until it fails.
- C. The humoral immune response lacks B cells that form antibodies and opportunistic infections result.
- D. Inadequate numbers of T lymphocytes are available to initiate cellular immunity and macrophages.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: With a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter, the client's immune system is severely compromised, leading to opportunistic infections.
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