what are early signs of varicella disease what are early signs of varicella disease
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Medical Surgical HESI

1. What are early signs of varicella disease?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct early sign of varicella disease is general malaise. During the prodromal period, patients may experience low-grade fever, malaise, and anorexia. Increased appetite and crusty sores are not typically early signs of varicella. The appearance of lesions occurs later in the course of the disease.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with hyperkalemia. Which finding is consistent with this electrolyte imbalance?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Muscle weakness is a common finding in clients with hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia can lead to muscle weakness due to the effect of high potassium levels on muscle function. Decreased deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) are not typically associated with hyperkalemia; instead, hyperreflexia or increased reflexes may be observed. Constipation (Choice C) is not a common symptom of hyperkalemia. Hypotension (Choice D) is also not a typical finding in hyperkalemia; instead, hypertension or normal blood pressure may be present.

3. A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.

4. Which individual has the highest risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the 60-year-old homeless person who is an alcoholic and smokes. This individual has the highest risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia due to factors such as homelessness, alcoholism, and smoking, which weaken the immune system and make them more susceptible to respiratory infections. Choice A is incorrect as working with underprivileged children, while potentially exposing the individual to various illnesses, does not directly increase the risk of pneumonia. Choice B is less likely as exercise-induced wheezing may suggest asthma but does not directly correlate with pneumonia risk. Choice D, an aerobics instructor who eats only vegetables and skips meals, does not have the same level of risk factors for pneumonia as the homeless person in choice C.

5. What information would the nurse include in the preoperative plan of care for an infant with myelomeningocele?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Covering the sac with saline-soaked nonadhesive gauze. This intervention is essential in caring for an infant with myelomeningocele as it helps prevent infection and maintains a moist environment around the sac before surgical repair. Positioning the infant supine with a pillow under the buttocks (Choice A) may be suitable for comfort but is not directly related to managing the myelomeningocele. Wrapping the infant snugly in a blanket (Choice C) and applying a diaper (Choice D) are not recommended as they can increase the risk of infection and damage to the sac.

Similar Questions

An adult suffered burns to the face and chest resulting from a grease fire. On admission, the client was intubated, and a 2-liter bolus of normal saline was administered IV. Currently, the normal saline is infusing at 250 ml/hour. The client’s heart rate is 120 beats/minute, blood pressure is 90/50 mmHg, respirations are 12 breaths/minute over the ventilated 12 breaths for a total of 24 breaths/minute, and the central venous pressure (CVP) is 4 mm H2O. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
What is the main characteristic of cystic fibrosis?
When administering otic ear medication to an adult client, what action should be done to ensure the medication reaches the inner ear?
Following a traumatic delivery, an infant receives an initial Apgar score of 3. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
A healthcare provider is receiving a prescription for a client who is experiencing dysphagia following a stroke. Which of the following prescriptions should the healthcare provider clarify?

Access More Features

HESI Basic

HESI Basic