HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI
1. A male client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia has a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter. The client asks the nurse why he keeps getting these massive infections. Which pathophysiologic mechanism should the nurse describe in response to the client's question?
- A. Bone marrow suppression of white blood cells causes insufficient cells to phagocytize organisms.
- B. Exposure to multiple environmental infectious agents overburdens the immune system until it fails.
- C. The humoral immune response lacks B cells that form antibodies and opportunistic infections result.
- D. Inadequate numbers of T lymphocytes are available to initiate cellular immunity and macrophages.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: With a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter, the client's immune system is severely compromised, leading to opportunistic infections.
2. What should be included in the medical management of sickle cell crisis?
- A. Information for the parents including home care
- B. Provisions for adequate hydration and pain management
- C. Pain management and administration of iron supplements
- D. Adequate oxygenation and factor VIII
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provisions for adequate hydration and pain management. In managing a sickle cell crisis, it is essential to provide adequate hydration to prevent further sickling of red blood cells and ensure proper pain management to alleviate the severe pain associated with the crisis. While information for parents and home care may be important aspects of overall care, they are not specific to the immediate medical management of a sickle cell crisis. Administration of iron supplements is not recommended during a sickle cell crisis as it can potentially worsen the condition by promoting the production of more sickled red blood cells. Adequate oxygenation is crucial in sickle cell disease, but factor VIII is not typically part of the management of a sickle cell crisis.
3. A young client who is being taught how to use an inhaler for symptoms of asthma tells the nurse about the intention to use the inhaler but plans to continue smoking cigarettes. In evaluating the client’s response, what is the best initial action by the nurse?
- A. Explain the risks of smoking with asthma.
- B. Revise the plan of care.
- C. Encourage the client to reduce smoking gradually.
- D. Provide resources for smoking cessation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best initial action by the nurse is to revise the plan of care. This is necessary to address the client's intention to continue smoking and ensure that appropriate support and education are provided. Choice A is not the best initial action as the client is already aware of the risks of smoking with asthma. Choice C might not be effective as the client's intention to continue smoking poses a significant risk to their health. Choice D, providing resources for smoking cessation, is important but revising the plan of care should come first to address the immediate concern.
4. A client with chronic heart failure is being discharged with a new prescription for furosemide. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- B. Restrict your fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
- C. Avoid salt substitutes containing potassium.
- D. Weigh yourself once a week.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss due to increased urinary excretion. Potassium-rich foods can help prevent hypokalemia, a potential side effect of furosemide. Restricting fluid intake (choice B) may not be suitable for all patients with heart failure, and a general restriction of 1 liter per day is not typically recommended. Avoiding salt substitutes containing potassium (choice C) is not a priority teaching point in this scenario. Weighing oneself once a week (choice D) is important for monitoring fluid status, but increasing potassium-rich foods is more directly related to the potential side effects of furosemide.
5. When speaking to young parents, the nurse states that lead poisoning is one of the most common preventable health problems affecting children. What condition occurs when the level of lead ingested exceeds the amount that can be absorbed by the bone?
- A. Malnutrition
- B. Anemia
- C. Bone pain
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anemia. When the amount of lead ingested exceeds the amount that can be absorbed by the bone, it leads to anemia. Malnutrition (Choice A) is a state of inadequate nutrition, not directly related to lead poisoning. Bone pain (Choice C) is a symptom of lead poisoning due to its effects on bones but not directly related to lead ingestion exceeding absorption. Diarrhea (Choice D) is not a direct consequence of lead ingestion exceeding absorption by bones.
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