a male client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome aids and pneumocystis carinii pneumonia has a cd4 t cell count of 200 cellsmicroliter the clien a male client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome aids and pneumocystis carinii pneumonia has a cd4 t cell count of 200 cellsmicroliter the clien
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI

1. A male client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia has a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter. The client asks the nurse why he keeps getting these massive infections. Which pathophysiologic mechanism should the nurse describe in response to the client's question?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: With a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter, the client's immune system is severely compromised, leading to opportunistic infections.

2. A 3-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Kawasaki disease. What is the priority nursing intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a 3-year-old child with Kawasaki disease is monitoring for coronary artery aneurysms. Kawasaki disease can lead to coronary artery complications, making early detection crucial in preventing serious outcomes. Administering IV immunoglobulin is a standard treatment for Kawasaki disease but does not take precedence over monitoring for potential complications. Encouraging fluid intake and providing nutritional support are important aspects of care but are not the priority when compared to monitoring for coronary artery aneurysms to prevent long-term cardiac issues.

3. A client taking clopidogrel reports the onset of diarrhea. Which nursing action should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Observing the stool’s appearance should be implemented first as it helps determine the nature and possible severity of the diarrhea, which is essential in managing the side effect. Assessing skin turgor (Choice B) is not the priority in this situation. Reviewing laboratory values (Choice C) can provide additional information but is not the initial step. Auscultating bowel sounds (Choice D) is not the priority when the client is experiencing diarrhea.

4. How does omeprazole work in treating a peptic ulcer?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works by reducing gastric acid secretion. By inhibiting the enzyme responsible for pumping acid into the stomach, omeprazole helps decrease the acidity level in the stomach, providing relief from peptic ulcers. Option A is incorrect because omeprazole does not increase gastric acid production; instead, it decreases it. Option B is incorrect as omeprazole does not neutralize existing stomach acid but rather reduces its secretion. Option C is incorrect as omeprazole does not coat the stomach lining but acts on reducing acid secretion.

5. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease (PUD). Which dietary recommendation is most appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate dietary recommendation for a client with peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is to avoid spicy foods. Spicy foods can irritate the stomach lining and exacerbate symptoms of PUD. Increasing fiber intake may be beneficial for other gastrointestinal conditions but is not the primary concern for PUD. Avoiding dairy products is not a general recommendation for PUD unless the individual has a specific intolerance. Consuming a high-fat diet can increase the risk of exacerbating PUD symptoms due to the delayed gastric emptying associated with high-fat meals.

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