Nursing Elites

1. A male client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia has a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter. The client asks the nurse why he keeps getting these massive infections. Which pathophysiologic mechanism should the nurse describe in response to the client's question?

• A. Bone marrow suppression of white blood cells causes insufficient cells to phagocytize organisms.
• B. Exposure to multiple environmental infectious agents overburdens the immune system until it fails.
• C. The humoral immune response lacks B cells that form antibodies and opportunistic infections result.
• D. Inadequate numbers of T lymphocytes are available to initiate cellular immunity and macrophages.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: With a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter, the client's immune system is severely compromised, leading to opportunistic infections.

2. A female client who was involved in a motor vehicle collision is admitted with a fractured left femur which is immobilized using a fracture traction splint in preparation for an open reduction internal fixation (ORIF). The nurse determines that her distal pulses are diminished in the left foot. Which interventions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply)

• A. Verify pedal pulses using a doppler pulse device.
• B. Monitor left leg for pain, pallor, paresthesia, paralysis, pressure.
• C. Evaluate the application of the splint to the left leg.
• D.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: It is crucial for the nurse to evaluate the application of the splint to the left leg in a client with diminished distal pulses. This assessment helps ensure that the splint is not causing any compromise to circulation. Verifying pulses and monitoring for leg conditions are important interventions but do not directly address the issue with the splint application in this scenario, making them less relevant.

3. Before selecting which medication to administer, which action should the nurse implement if a postoperative client reports incisional pain and has two prescriptions for PRN analgesia?

• A. Compare the client’s pain scale rating with the prescribed dosing.
• B. Determine which prescription will have the quickest onset of action.
• C. Ask the client to choose which medication is needed for the pain.
• D. Document the client’s report of pain in the electronic medical record.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a postoperative client reports incisional pain and has two prescriptions for PRN analgesia, the nurse should first compare the client’s pain scale rating with the prescribed dosing. This action ensures that the client receives the appropriate medication based on their pain level. Determining the onset of action or asking the client to choose the medication does not guarantee that the right medication is administered according to the pain intensity. Documenting the pain report is important but should not be the first action when deciding which medication to administer.

4. A client admitted with left-sided heart failure has a heart rate of 110 beats per minute and is becoming increasingly dyspneic. Which additional assessment finding by the nurse supports the client’s admitting diagnosis?

• A. Jugular vein distention.
• B. Crackles in the lung bases.
• C. Peripheral edema.
• D. Bounding peripheral pulses.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Crackles in the lung bases. Crackles in the lung bases are indicative of pulmonary congestion, which is a classic sign of left-sided heart failure. Left-sided heart failure leads to a backup of blood into the lungs, causing fluid leakage into the alveoli and resulting in crackles upon auscultation. Choices A, C, and D are less specific to left-sided heart failure. Jugular vein distention can be seen in right-sided heart failure, peripheral edema can be seen in both right and left-sided heart failure, and bounding peripheral pulses are more indicative of conditions like hyperthyroidism or anemia rather than specifically supporting left-sided heart failure.

5. The nurse is preparing a client for surgery who was admitted to the emergency center following a motor vehicle collision. The client has an open fracture of the femur and is bleeding moderately from the bone protrusion site.

• A. Ensure the client is NPO and document the last meal.
• B. Administer pain medication as prescribed.
• C. Apply a sterile dressing to the wound site.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider of the client’s medication history.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action is to notify the healthcare provider of the client's medication history. This is important because understanding the client’s medication history, especially if they are taking anticoagulants or other medications that could affect bleeding and surgery, is crucial in ensuring safe management of the client's condition. Option A, ensuring the client is NPO and documenting the last meal, is important but not the priority in this situation. Administering pain medication (Option B) should only be done after ensuring the client's safety and stability. Applying a sterile dressing (Option C) is also important but not as critical as informing the healthcare provider of the medication history.

Similar Questions