the nurse is preparing a client for surgery who was admitted to the emergency center following a motor vehicle collision the client has an open fractu
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI Quizlet

1. The nurse is preparing a client for surgery who was admitted to the emergency center following a motor vehicle collision. The client has an open fracture of the femur and is bleeding moderately from the bone protrusion site.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action is to notify the healthcare provider of the client's medication history. This is important because understanding the client’s medication history, especially if they are taking anticoagulants or other medications that could affect bleeding and surgery, is crucial in ensuring safe management of the client's condition. Option A, ensuring the client is NPO and documenting the last meal, is important but not the priority in this situation. Administering pain medication (Option B) should only be done after ensuring the client's safety and stability. Applying a sterile dressing (Option C) is also important but not as critical as informing the healthcare provider of the medication history.

2. A client is currently receiving an infusion labeled as 5% dextrose injection 500 ml with heparin sodium 25,000 units at 14 mL/hour per pump. A prescription is received to change the rate of the infusion to heparin 1,000 units/hour. How many ml/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To deliver 1,000 units/hour from a solution with 25,000 units in 500 ml, the rate should be set to 20 ml/hour. This is calculated by determining that the solution has 50 units/ml (25,000 units / 500 ml = 50 units/ml) and then dividing the required 1,000 units/hour by 50 units/ml, resulting in 20 ml/hour. Therefore, the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver heparin at 20 ml/hour. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the calculated rate of 20 ml/hour.

3. A client with chronic heart failure is experiencing dyspnea and has an oxygen saturation of 88%. Which position is most appropriate to improve oxygenation?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: High Fowler's position. High Fowler's position is the most appropriate for a client with chronic heart failure experiencing dyspnea and low oxygen saturation. This position helps improve lung expansion and oxygenation by maximizing chest expansion and allowing better ventilation. Choice A, supine with legs elevated, may worsen dyspnea by reducing lung expansion. Choice C, prone with pillows under the chest, is not suitable for a client experiencing dyspnea as it may further compromise breathing. Choice D, side-lying with head flat, does not facilitate optimal lung expansion and is not the best choice for improving oxygenation in this scenario.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with myasthenia gravis. Which symptom is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with myasthenia gravis, difficulty swallowing is the most crucial symptom to report to the healthcare provider. This is because it can lead to aspiration, a severe complication in these clients. Diplopia (double vision) and weakness in the legs are common symptoms of myasthenia gravis but are not as immediately dangerous as difficulty swallowing. Fatigue is also a common symptom in myasthenia gravis but does not pose the same risk of aspiration as difficulty swallowing.

5. The nurse uses a diagram to show that the tetralogy of Fallot involves a combination of four congenital defects. What are the defects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy. Tetralogy of Fallot involves these four congenital defects. Choice A is incorrect because it includes aortic stenosis instead of pulmonary stenosis, atrial septal defect instead of ventricular septal defect, and left ventricular hypertrophy instead of right ventricular hypertrophy. Choice C is incorrect as it includes aortic stenosis and atrial septal defect instead of pulmonary stenosis and ventricular septal defect. Choice D is incorrect because it includes aortic hypertrophy instead of overriding aorta.

Similar Questions

A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which side effect should the nurse instruct the client to report?
An older client is receiving an IV of 5% dextrose in 0.45% normal saline at 75 mL/hour. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the client is developing a complication from this therapy?
In a disaster area, a nurse assesses an adult male with partial-thickness burns on his lower legs, approximately 10% of his lower body. Which color of triage tag should the nurse place on this client?
A client is admitted to the emergency department with symptoms of arm numbness, chest pain, and nausea/vomiting. The examining healthcare provider believes that the client has experienced an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) within the past three hours and would like to initiate tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) therapy. Which client history findings contraindicate the use of tPA?
A client with liver cirrhosis is at risk for developing hepatic encephalopathy. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse monitor for?

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses