Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider writes several prescriptions for a client diagnosed with hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP) that include a combination of broad-spectrum antibiotics. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer the first dose of antibiotics.
• B. Obtain a chest X-ray.
• C. Administer oxygen therapy.
• D. Collect blood specimens for culture prior to starting antibiotic therapy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Collecting blood specimens for culture prior to starting antibiotic therapy is the priority intervention in a client diagnosed with hospital-acquired pneumonia. This step is crucial to identify the causative organism responsible for the infection and ensure that the antibiotics prescribed are appropriate for effective treatment. Administering antibiotics before collecting cultures may interfere with the accuracy of culture results, potentially leading to inappropriate treatment. While administering the first dose of antibiotics is important, obtaining a chest X-ray and administering oxygen therapy are secondary interventions compared to identifying the causative organism through blood cultures.

2. The health care provider is treating a child with meningitis with a course of antibiotic therapy. When should the nurse expect the child to be out of isolation?

• A. When the course of antibiotics is complete
• B. When a negative CNS culture is obtained
• C. When the antibiotics have been initiated for 24 hours
• D. When the child has no symptoms of the disease

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a child with bacterial meningitis should be isolated for at least 24 hours until antibiotic therapy has been initiated. This period allows the antibiotics to start working against the infection, reducing the risk of spreading it to others. Choice A is incorrect because isolation is not solely based on completing the course of antibiotics; the initiation is crucial. Choice B is incorrect as waiting for a negative CNS culture may take longer and delay necessary precautions. Choice D is incorrect as symptom resolution does not guarantee the eradication of the infection and may still pose a risk of transmission.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presented with shortness of breath. Oxygen therapy was started at 2 liters/minute via nasal cannula. The arterial blood gases (ABGs) after treatment were pH 7.36, PaO2 52, PaCO2 59, HCO3 33. Which statement describes the most likely cause of the simultaneous increase in both PaO2 and PaCO2?

• A. The client is hyperventilating due to anxiety.
• B. The hypoxic drive was reduced by the oxygen therapy.
• C. The client is experiencing respiratory alkalosis.
• D. The client is experiencing metabolic acidosis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oxygen therapy can reduce the hypoxic drive in COPD patients, leading to increased PaCO2 levels while improving oxygenation (PaO2). In this case, the increase in PaO2 and PaCO2 is due to the reduction of the hypoxic drive by the supplemental oxygen. Choice A is incorrect because hyperventilation would lead to decreased PaCO2. Choice C is incorrect as the ABG values do not indicate respiratory alkalosis. Choice D is incorrect as the ABG values do not support metabolic acidosis.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with a suspected stroke. Which assessment finding is most indicative of a stroke?

• A. Chest pain
• B. Sudden confusion and difficulty speaking
• C. Gradual onset of weakness in the legs
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sudden confusion and difficulty speaking. These are classic signs of a stroke, indicating a neurological deficit that requires urgent medical attention. Choices A, C, and D are less indicative of a stroke. Chest pain is more commonly associated with cardiac issues, gradual onset of weakness in the legs could be related to other conditions like peripheral neuropathy, and nausea/vomiting may suggest gastrointestinal problems rather than a stroke.

5. The nurse explains to the parents of a child with developmental hip dysplasia that the application of a Pavlik harness is necessary. In what position will the harness hold the child's femurs?

• A. Abduction
• B. Adduction
• C. Flexion
• D. Extension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Abduction. The use of the Pavlik harness is to maintain the hips in abduction for 4 to 6 months to treat developmental hip dysplasia. This position helps in stabilizing the hip joint and promoting proper growth and development. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the Pavlik harness specifically aims to hold the child's femurs in abduction, not adduction, flexion, or extension.

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