Nursing Elites

1. When caring for a client with borderline personality disorder in a psychiatric unit, what is the most therapeutic nursing intervention?

• A. Set clear and consistent boundaries for the client.
• B. Allow the client to vent their feelings without interruption.
• C. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy.
• D. Provide the client with frequent reassurance and support.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Setting clear and consistent boundaries is the most therapeutic nursing intervention when caring for a client with borderline personality disorder. This approach provides structure, promotes predictability, and helps prevent manipulative behaviors. By establishing boundaries, the nurse can maintain a safe therapeutic relationship with the client. Allowing the client to vent their feelings without interruption (Choice B) may not always be beneficial, as it could reinforce maladaptive behaviors. Encouraging participation in group therapy (Choice C) can be helpful but setting boundaries is more critical for individualized care. Providing the client with frequent reassurance and support (Choice D) may not address the underlying issues and can contribute to dependency rather than fostering independence and coping skills.

2. A client with bipolar disorder is being discharged with a prescription for lithium. What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?

• A. Avoid foods high in sodium.
• B. Drink plenty of fluids, especially during hot weather.
• C. Take your medication with food.
• D. Monitor your blood pressure regularly.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to drink plenty of fluids, especially during hot weather. Maintaining adequate hydration is crucial for clients taking lithium as dehydration can lead to lithium toxicity. Choice A is incorrect because while it is important to monitor sodium intake, staying hydrated is more critical. Choice C is incorrect as lithium is usually recommended to be taken with food to reduce stomach upset. Choice D is also important but not the most crucial instruction compared to ensuring proper hydration.

3. A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?

• A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor closely.
• B. Immediately transfer the client to the ICU.
• C. Report the symptoms to the charge nurse and document in the client's chart.
• D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of such medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a severe and life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs. The major symptoms include fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and encephalopathy. Respiratory failure, cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, and/or renal failure can lead to death. This is an emergency situation requiring immediate critical care, thus the correct action is to transfer the client to the ICU (B). Seizure precautions (A) are not relevant in this scenario. Merely describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them (C) or taking no action assuming these are common side effects (D) fail to address the critical nature of the situation and the urgency of immediate intervention.

4. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement during the initial interview for a client who is admitted to the mental health unit?

• A. Establish rapport in each phase of the nurse-client relationship.
• B. Determine the client's ability to communicate effectively.
• C. Reflect on previous psychiatric interviews the nurse has performed.
• D. Ensure data is collected and recorded in a systematic sequence.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Establishing rapport is the most important action during the initial interview for a client admitted to the mental health unit. Building rapport helps create a trusting relationship between the nurse and the client, which is essential for effective communication and the success of the therapeutic relationship. Choice B, determining the client's ability to communicate effectively, is important but secondary to establishing rapport. Choice C, reflecting on previous psychiatric interviews, is not as critical during the initial interview with a new client. Choice D, ensuring data collection and recording in a systematic sequence, is important but comes after establishing rapport to foster a therapeutic environment.

5. A nurse is assessing a client with dementia who is showing signs of increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon. What is the most likely explanation for the client's symptoms?

• A. Anxiety
• B. Depression
• C. Sun-downing syndrome
• D. Medication side effects

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sun-downing syndrome. Sun-downing syndrome is a phenomenon commonly seen in individuals with dementia, where they exhibit increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon or evening. This pattern of behavior is believed to be linked to disruptions in the circadian rhythm and can be triggered by factors such as fatigue, low lighting, or increased shadows during the evening. Choices A and B, anxiety and depression, may be comorbid conditions in individuals with dementia but are not the primary explanation for the symptoms described. While medication side effects (Choice D) should always be considered in a client with dementia, given the time-specific nature of the symptoms, sun-downing syndrome is the most likely explanation in this case.

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