a male adolescent is admitted with bipolar disorder after being released from jail for assault with a deadly weapon when the nurse asks the teen to id
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Mental Health HESI Practice Questions

1. A male adolescent is admitted with bipolar disorder after being released from jail for assault with a deadly weapon. When the nurse asks the teen to identify his reason for the assault, he replies, 'Because he made me mad!' Which goal is best for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care? The client will

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's response indicates poor impulse control, a common issue in individuals with bipolar disorder. The most critical goal for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care is to help the client control impulsive actions toward self and others. This goal is essential for preventing harmful behaviors and mitigating the social consequences associated with impulsivity. While outlining methods for managing anger, verbalizing feelings when anger occurs, and recognizing consequences for behaviors exhibited are important aspects of therapy, they do not directly address the urgent need to control impulsive behavior in this case.

2. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who has been prescribed a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) for depression. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The statement 'I can drink alcohol in moderation while taking this medication' indicates a need for further teaching because alcohol consumption can have dangerous interactions with MAOIs. MAOIs can interact with alcohol to cause a hypertensive crisis, which can be life-threatening. Choices A and B are correct statements as avoiding tyramine-rich foods and taking the medication with food can help prevent adverse effects. Choice D is incorrect because abruptly stopping an antidepressant medication like an MAOI can lead to withdrawal symptoms and a relapse of depression.

3. A client with schizophrenia receiving haloperidol (Haldol) has a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS). The symptoms described, such as a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking, are indicative of EPS, which can be a serious side effect of haloperidol. It is crucial to involve the healthcare provider immediately to address these symptoms. Administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation, as it does not address the underlying cause of EPS. Encouraging the client to perform facial exercises (Choice B) is not appropriate and may not effectively manage EPS. Documenting the findings and continuing to monitor the client (Choice D) is important but not the priority when potential EPS is present; immediate action by notifying the healthcare provider is essential.

4. A client states that she hears God's voice telling her that she has sinned and needs to punish herself. Which response by the LPN/LVN is most important?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important response by the LPN/LVN is to encourage the client to communicate with staff when they feel the need to punish themselves. This approach can help assess the risk of self-harm and enable appropriate intervention. Choice A focuses more on the method of punishment rather than encouraging help-seeking behavior. Choice C seeks specific details about the perceived wrongdoing rather than addressing the immediate concern of self-punishment. Choice D, discussing strengths, does not directly address the client's current distress and potential self-harm risk.

5. During discharge planning for a male client with schizophrenia who insists on returning to his apartment despite being informed to move to a boarding home, what is the most important nursing diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important nursing diagnosis for discharge planning in this scenario is 'Ineffective denial related to situational anxiety.' The client's insistence on returning to his apartment despite being informed otherwise indicates a form of denial, possibly due to anxiety about the situational change. Focused discharge planning should address this denial and the underlying anxiety to ensure a smooth transition. Choices B, C, and D are not as relevant in this context as the primary issue lies in the client's denial and anxiety regarding the change in living arrangements, rather than coping, social interactions, or self-care deficits.

Similar Questions

Which client information indicates the need for the nurse to use the CAGE questionnaire during the admission interview?
An anxious client expressing a fear of people and open places is admitted to the psychiatric unit. What is the most effective way for the nurse to assist this client?
A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?
The LPN/LVN is assessing a client's intelligence. Which factor should the nurse remember during this part of the mental status exam?
A client with anorexia nervosa is being treated in an inpatient unit. Which intervention is a priority for the nurse?

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses