Nursing Elites

1. An 86-year-old female client with Alzheimer's disease is wandering the busy halls of the extended care facility and asks the nurse, "Where should I stand for the parade?" Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide?

• A. Anywhere you want to stand as long as you do not get hurt by those in the parade.
• B. You are confused because of all the activity in the hall. There is no parade.
• C. Let us go back to the activity room and see what is going on in there.
• D. Remember I told you that this is a nursing home and I am your nurse.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Redirecting the client to a less confusing environment can help reduce anxiety and reorient her to reality.

2. A client is responding to auditory hallucinations and shakes a fist at a nurse and says, 'Back off, witch!' The nurse follows the client into the day room. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Sit down in a chair near the client.
• B. Position self within an arm's length of the client.
• C. Ensure that there is physical space between the nurse and client.
• D. Move to a position that allows the client to be closest to the room's door.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In situations where a client is responding to auditory hallucinations and displaying aggressive behavior, it is crucial for the nurse to ensure physical space between themselves and the client. This action can help de-escalate the situation and prevent any potential harm to both the nurse and the client. Sitting down near the client (Choice A) may escalate the situation by invading the client's personal space. Positioning oneself within an arm's length of the client (Choice B) may increase the risk of physical confrontation. Moving closer to the room's door (Choice D) may not be appropriate as it can block the client's exit route and escalate the situation further. Therefore, ensuring physical space between the nurse and the client (Choice C) is the most appropriate action to promote safety and prevent escalation.

3. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with clozapine (Clozaril). What is the most important laboratory test for the LPN/LVN to monitor?

• A. White blood cell count.
• B. Liver function tests.
• C. Blood glucose levels.
• D. Platelet count.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important laboratory test for an LPN/LVN to monitor for a client with schizophrenia being treated with clozapine is the white blood cell count. Clozapine treatment is associated with a risk of agranulocytosis, a severe drop in white blood cells, which can be life-threatening. Monitoring the white blood cell count regularly helps to detect this adverse effect early. Liver function tests (Choice B) are important to monitor with some antipsychotic medications but are not the most crucial for clozapine. Blood glucose levels (Choice C) are more relevant for monitoring in clients on medications like atypical antipsychotics that can cause metabolic side effects. Platelet count (Choice D) is not typically affected by clozapine therapy and is not the most important test to monitor in this case.

4. A homeless person who is in the manic phase of bipolar disorder is admitted to the mental health unit. Which laboratory finding obtained on admission is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Decreased thyroid stimulating hormone level
• B. Elevated liver function profile
• C. Increased white blood cell count
• D. Decreased hematocrit and hemoglobin levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased thyroid stimulating hormone level. Hyperthyroidism causes an increased level of serum thyroid hormones (T3 and T4), which inhibit the release of TSH. In this case, a decreased TSH level can indicate hyperthyroidism, which can present with manic behavior. Elevated liver function profile (B) is not directly related to the manic phase of bipolar disorder. Increased white blood cell count (C) typically indicates an infection or inflammation, not directly related to the manic phase. Decreased hematocrit and hemoglobin levels (D) may suggest anemia but are not as crucial in the context of a manic phase of bipolar disorder.

5. A female client with severe depression who has been on antidepressants for two weeks suddenly becomes more energetic and talkative. What action should the RN take first?

• A. Encourage the client to participate in group activities.
• B. Monitor the client closely for signs of suicidal behavior.
• C. Praise the client for the apparent improvement.
• D. Discuss the client's progress with the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A sudden increase in energy and talkativeness in a client with severe depression who has been on antidepressants for a short period may indicate an increased risk of suicide due to the potential shift from profound sadness to motivation to act. The first action the RN should take is to monitor the client closely for signs of suicidal behavior. Encouraging participation in group activities or praising the client for the apparent improvement may overlook the potential risk of suicidal behavior. While discussing the client's progress with the healthcare provider is important, the immediate concern is to ensure the client's safety by closely monitoring for any signs of suicidal ideation or behavior.

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