a client with bipolar disorder is taking lithium which client assessment data would indicate a potential adverse effect of lithium therapy
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Practice Test Pharmacology

1. A client with bipolar disorder is taking lithium. Which client assessment data would indicate a potential adverse effect of lithium therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client taking lithium, dry mouth and increased thirst are indicators of potential adverse effects. Lithium can lead to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, causing polyuria and subsequent increased thirst due to impaired water reabsorption in the kidneys. Tremors can also be a sign of lithium toxicity. Monitoring and recognizing these symptoms are crucial in managing lithium therapy and preventing further complications.

2. A client with asthma is prescribed fluticasone. The nurse should instruct the client to use this medication at which time?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fluticasone is a maintenance medication for asthma aimed at controlling symptoms. It should be taken once a day on a regular basis to provide ongoing relief and prevent asthma symptoms, rather than being used to treat acute asthma attacks. Therefore, the correct answer is to use it once a day. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because using fluticasone during an asthma attack, twice a day, or only at night before bed does not align with the medication's purpose of being a daily maintenance therapy.

3. A client receiving enalapril reports a persistent dry cough. The nurse should explain that this side effect is related to which medication action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to increased levels of bradykinin. The accumulation of bradykinin is responsible for the persistent dry cough associated with ACE inhibitors like enalapril. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because enalapril does not directly affect the production of angiotensin II or aldosterone. Instead, it primarily impacts the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to bradykinin accumulation.

4. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed rivaroxaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed rivaroxaban, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding as rivaroxaban increases the risk of bleeding. Common adverse effects of rivaroxaban include bleeding events, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, or blood in the urine or stool. It is crucial for the nurse to assess for these signs to prevent complications and ensure the client's safety. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because rivaroxaban does not decrease the risk of bleeding, increase the risk of infection, or decrease the risk of infection. Monitoring for bleeding is essential due to the anticoagulant properties of rivaroxaban.

5. The healthcare provider has prescribed an influenza vaccine for a 74-year-old client before discharge. Which client condition would prompt the practical nurse to consult with the charge nurse rather than administer the vaccine?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of an egg allergy. The influenza vaccine may contain a small amount of egg protein. According to the CDC, individuals with a severe allergy to any component of the vaccine, including egg protein, should not receive the influenza vaccine. Therefore, if the client has a history of an allergy to eggs, the practical nurse should not administer the vaccine and consult with the charge nurse for further guidance, as it is a contraindication. The other conditions listed do not require consultation before administering the influenza vaccine.

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