a client with bipolar disorder is taking lithium which client assessment data would indicate a potential adverse effect of lithium therapy
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Practice Test Pharmacology

1. A client with bipolar disorder is taking lithium. Which client assessment data would indicate a potential adverse effect of lithium therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client taking lithium, dry mouth and increased thirst are indicators of potential adverse effects. Lithium can lead to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, causing polyuria and subsequent increased thirst due to impaired water reabsorption in the kidneys. Tremors can also be a sign of lithium toxicity. Monitoring and recognizing these symptoms are crucial in managing lithium therapy and preventing further complications.

2. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed semaglutide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea. Semaglutide, a medication used to treat type 2 diabetes, is known to cause nausea as a potential adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for gastrointestinal symptoms, including nausea, after initiating treatment with semaglutide. While hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are common concerns in diabetes management, they are not the primary adverse effects associated with semaglutide. Pancreatitis is a serious but rare adverse effect of GLP-1 receptor agonists like semaglutide, which should also be monitored for, but nausea is a more common and immediate concern.

3. How do you determine if the medication is effective for a client with anemia secondary to chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. To assess the effectiveness of medication for anemia in a client with CKD, monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial. Hemoglobin levels directly indicate the response to treatment and improvement in the condition. An increase in hemoglobin level to 12 grams/dL suggests that the medication is effectively addressing the anemia associated with CKD. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased consumption of iron-rich foods, reports of increased energy levels and decreased fatigue, and tolerance to concurrent iron therapy without adverse effects are not direct indicators of the medication's effectiveness in treating anemia secondary to CKD.

4. A client with hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is known to cause peripheral edema as a potential adverse effect due to its vasodilatory properties. This can lead to fluid accumulation in the extremities. Monitoring for peripheral edema in patients taking amlodipine is crucial to identify and manage this side effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because amlodipine is not associated with causing bradycardia, hypertension (as the patient already has hypertension), or increased appetite as adverse effects.

5. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease is prescribed epoetin alfa. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Epoetin alfa can lead to hypertension as an adverse effect because it stimulates increased red blood cell production. This can result in elevated blood pressure levels, requiring careful monitoring by the nurse to prevent complications. Choice B, hypotension, is incorrect because epoetin alfa is more likely to cause hypertension rather than hypotension. Choice C, hyperglycemia, and Choice D, tachycardia, are also incorrect as they are not commonly associated with the use of epoetin alfa.

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