Nursing Elites

1. The practical nurse is assigned a client on digoxin therapy. Which finding is likely to predispose this client to developing digoxin toxicity?

• A. Hyponatremia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hypokalemia predisposes a client on digoxin to digoxin toxicity. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include abdominal pain, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, visual disturbances, bradycardia, and atrioventricular (AV) dissociation. Therefore, assessment of serum potassium levels and prompt correction of hypokalemia are crucial interventions for clients taking digoxin.

2. A client is prescribed clopidogrel. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect of this medication?

• A. Nausea and vomiting
• B. Bleeding or bruising
• C. Gastrointestinal bleeding
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is prescribed clopidogrel, the nurse should monitor for potential side effects related to bleeding due to its antiplatelet effect. Gastrointestinal bleeding is a severe side effect associated with clopidogrel use. Monitoring for signs of gastrointestinal bleeding, such as black, tarry stools or vomiting blood, is essential to prevent serious complications.

3. A client is prescribed nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. The practical nurse should reinforce which instruction?

• A. Store the tablets in a cool, dry place.
• B. Take one tablet every 5 minutes until pain is relieved, up to three tablets.
• C. Swallow the tablets whole.
• D. Chew the tablets for faster relief.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets are sensitive to heat and moisture, so they should be stored in a cool, dry place to maintain their efficacy. Storing them in a cool, dry place helps prevent degradation of the medication. Choice B is incorrect because nitroglycerin tablets should be taken as directed by the healthcare provider to avoid potential overdose or adverse effects. Choice C is incorrect because sublingual tablets should be placed under the tongue to dissolve and be absorbed, not swallowed, to ensure their quick action. Choice D is incorrect because sublingual tablets should not be chewed; they are meant to be absorbed through the tissues under the tongue, and chewing them may alter their effectiveness.

4. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Increased risk of bleeding
• B. Decreased risk of bleeding
• C. Increased risk of infection
• D. Decreased risk of infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by prolonging the time it takes for blood to clot. Therefore, a potential adverse effect of warfarin is an increased risk of bleeding. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, nosebleeds, or blood in the urine or stool. Monitoring for these signs is essential to prevent serious complications associated with excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because warfarin does not decrease the risk of bleeding, increase the risk of infection, or decrease the risk of infection. The primary concern with warfarin therapy is the potential for bleeding complications, so close monitoring for signs of bleeding is essential.

5. Which assessment finding requires nursing intervention prior to the administration of medication?

• A. Apical pulse heard best at the pulmonic site
• B. Irregular apical pulse rhythm
• C. Presence of a systolic heart murmur
• D. Apical pulse rate of 50 beats/minute

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An apical pulse rate of 50 beats/minute indicates bradycardia, a heart rate below the normal range, which requires immediate nursing intervention before administering medication to address the potential impact of the bradycardia on the patient's overall condition.

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