Nursing Elites

1. A client with multiple sclerosis starts a new prescription, baclofen, to control muscle spasticity. Three days later, the client calls the clinic nurse and reports feeling fatigued and dizzy. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Avoid hazardous activities until symptoms subside
• B. Contact the healthcare provider immediately
• C. Continue taking the medication every day
• D. Stop taking the medication until the unpleasant side effects wear off

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide is to advise the client to avoid hazardous activities until the symptoms of fatigue and dizziness subside. These side effects can impair the client's ability to engage in activities that require alertness and coordination, posing a risk for accidents. Contacting the healthcare provider immediately may not be necessary unless the symptoms worsen or persist. Continuing to take the medication every day without addressing the side effects can lead to further complications. Stopping the medication abruptly without healthcare provider guidance can also be risky and may not be necessary if the symptoms improve with time.

2. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed exenatide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Nausea
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Pancreatitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Exenatide, a medication commonly used in type 2 diabetes, is known to cause gastrointestinal side effects, such as nausea. Monitoring for nausea is essential as it can lead to decreased appetite and potential weight loss, affecting the nutritional status of the client. While hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are important to monitor in diabetes management, they are not typically associated with exenatide use. Pancreatitis is a rare but serious adverse effect of exenatide, which requires immediate medical attention if suspected.

3. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed escitalopram. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct potential side effect of escitalopram is drowsiness. Escitalopram is known to cause sedation, so clients should be advised to avoid activities that require mental alertness, such as driving, until they know how the medication affects them. Dry mouth, nausea, and headache are also common side effects of various medications but are not specifically associated with escitalopram.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed albuterol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Nausea
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Albuterol, a bronchodilator commonly used in COPD, can cause tachycardia as a potential side effect due to its beta-agonist properties that can stimulate the heart. Nausea (Choice B), dry mouth (Choice C), and weight gain (Choice D) are less likely associated with albuterol use. Nausea and dry mouth are not common side effects of albuterol, and weight gain is not typically linked to its use. Therefore, the nurse should primarily monitor for tachycardia when a client is prescribed albuterol for COPD.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed pioglitazone. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Liver toxicity
• C. Kidney stones
• D. Bone fractures

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, liver toxicity. Pioglitazone is known to cause liver toxicity, so it is essential for the nurse to monitor the client's liver function while on this medication. Monitoring liver function tests can help detect any signs of liver damage early, allowing for timely intervention to prevent serious complications.

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