HESI LPN
HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank
1. A client with asthma is receiving long-term glucocorticoid therapy. The nurse includes a risk for impaired skin integrity on the client's problem list. What is the rationale for including this problem?
- A. Abnormal fat deposits impair circulation
- B. Frequent diarrhea can lead to skin issues
- C. Thinned skin bruises easily
- D. Decreased serum glucose prolongs healing time
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Glucocorticoids can cause skin thinning, which increases the likelihood of bruising. Thinning of the skin due to glucocorticoid therapy makes it more fragile and prone to injury, such as bruising, even with minimal trauma. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because abnormal fat deposits impairing circulation, frequent diarrhea causing skin issues, and decreased serum glucose prolonging healing time are not direct effects of glucocorticoid therapy on skin integrity.
2. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. What is the most important instruction the practical nurse (PN) should provide to the client?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Avoid taking folic acid supplements.
- C. Report any signs of infection immediately.
- D. Increase intake of vitamin C-rich foods.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: The most important instruction for a client taking methotrexate is to report any signs of infection immediately. Methotrexate can suppress the immune system, making the client more susceptible to infections. Early detection and treatment of infections are crucial to prevent complications. Instructing the client to be vigilant for signs of infection empowers them to take prompt action, enhancing their overall safety and well-being.
3. A client with a diagnosis of depression is prescribed escitalopram. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. I should take this medication in the morning with food.
- B. This medication may take 1 to 4 weeks to notice improvement in symptoms.
- C. I can stop taking this medication once I feel better.
- D. This medication might make me feel drowsy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: It is crucial for clients to understand that they should not discontinue escitalopram abruptly, even if they start feeling better. Stopping the medication suddenly can lead to withdrawal symptoms or a relapse of depression. It is essential to complete the full course of treatment as prescribed by the healthcare provider to ensure the best outcomes and prevent potential complications.
4. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Peripheral edema
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker commonly associated with causing peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of swelling, particularly in the lower extremities, as it may indicate a need for dosage adjustment or further evaluation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as amlodipine is not known to cause tachycardia, bradycardia, or increased appetite as adverse effects.
5. A client with an exacerbation of asthma is prescribed albuterol. The nurse should assess the client for which common side effect of this medication?
- A. Tremors
- B. Nausea and vomiting
- C. Insomnia
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tremors. Albuterol, a beta-agonist medication commonly used to treat asthma exacerbations, can lead to tremors as a side effect. Tremors result from the stimulation of beta-2 receptors in muscles, particularly in the hands. Nausea and vomiting (Choice B) are generally not common side effects of albuterol. Insomnia (Choice C) is less likely to occur with albuterol, as it is a stimulant and can cause alertness rather than sleep disturbances. Dry mouth (Choice D) is not a typical side effect associated with albuterol use.
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