Nursing Elites

1. A client with asthma is receiving long-term glucocorticoid therapy. The nurse includes a risk for impaired skin integrity on the client's problem list. What is the rationale for including this problem?

• A. Abnormal fat deposits impair circulation
• B. Frequent diarrhea can lead to skin issues
• C. Thinned skin bruises easily
• D. Decreased serum glucose prolongs healing time

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Glucocorticoids can cause skin thinning, which increases the likelihood of bruising. Thinning of the skin due to glucocorticoid therapy makes it more fragile and prone to injury, such as bruising, even with minimal trauma. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because abnormal fat deposits impairing circulation, frequent diarrhea causing skin issues, and decreased serum glucose prolonging healing time are not direct effects of glucocorticoid therapy on skin integrity.

2. A client prescribed glipizide asked why they had to take their insulin orally. How should the practical nurse respond?

• A. Glipizide is not an oral form of insulin and can be used only when some beta cell function is present.
• B. Glipizide is an oral form of insulin and is distributed, metabolized, and excreted in the same manner as insulin.
• C. Glipizide is an oral form of insulin and has the same actions and properties as intermediate insulin.
• D. Glipizide is not an oral form of insulin, but it is effective for those who are resistant to injectable insulins.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The practical nurse should explain to the client that glipizide is not an oral form of insulin but an oral hypoglycemic agent. Glipizide works by enhancing pancreatic production of insulin when some beta cell function is present. It is not a replacement for insulin but helps the body produce more insulin. Therefore, it can be used when there is still some beta cell function present, unlike insulin which is used when there is a deficiency of endogenous insulin production.

3. An adolescent client with a seizure disorder is prescribed the anticonvulsant medication carbamazepine. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider if the client develops which condition?

• A. Experiences dry mouth.
• B. Experiences dizziness.
• C. Develops a sore throat.
• D. Develops gingival hyperplasia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Develops a sore throat.' When a client on carbamazepine develops flu-like symptoms such as pallor, fatigue, sore throat, and fever, it could indicate blood dyscrasias (aplastic anemia, leukopenia, anemia, thrombocytopenia), which are potential adverse effects of the medication. These symptoms warrant immediate notification of the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, dizziness, and gingival hyperplasia are not commonly associated with carbamazepine use and do not indicate serious adverse effects that require immediate healthcare provider notification.

4. A client vomits 30 minutes after receiving a dose of hydromorphone on the first postoperative day. What initial intervention is best for the practical nurse (PN) to implement?

• A. Obtain a prescription for nasogastric intubation.
• B. Administer a prn dose of ondansetron.
• C. Reduce the next scheduled dose of hydromorphone.
• D. Assess the client's abdomen and bowel sounds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's vomiting is likely due to the hydromorphone administration, indicating a need for an antiemetic such as ondansetron to address the nausea. Nasogastric intubation (Choice A) is not necessary at this point as the client is vomiting, not experiencing an obstruction. While reducing the dose of hydromorphone (Choice C) may be considered later, the immediate focus should be managing the client's symptoms. Assessing the client's abdomen and bowel sounds (Choice D) can be important but is not the initial priority when addressing the vomiting post hydromorphone administration.

5. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed lurasidone. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight gain. When a client is prescribed lurasidone, monitoring for weight gain is essential as lurasidone can cause this side effect. Patients on lurasidone should have their weight monitored regularly to detect any changes that may occur. Options B, C, and D are not typically associated with lurasidone use, making them less likely to be a direct side effect of this medication.

Similar Questions