a client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril the nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect
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Pharmacology HESI 55 Questions 2023

1. A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. Lisinopril is known to cause a persistent dry cough as a side effect. It is essential for the nurse to monitor the client for this adverse reaction as it may lead to discontinuation of the medication. Dizziness, hyperkalemia, and hyponatremia are not typically associated with lisinopril use. Dizziness is more commonly seen with antihypertensives that cause orthostatic hypotension. Hyperkalemia and hyponatremia are not usually linked to lisinopril use.

2. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed clozapine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Agranulocytosis. Clozapine is known to potentially cause agranulocytosis, a serious condition characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Monitoring white blood cell counts is crucial to detect this side effect early and prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, weight gain, and hypersalivation are not typically associated with clozapine use. While dry mouth can be a common side effect of some antipsychotic medications, it is not specifically linked to clozapine. Weight gain can occur with certain antipsychotics, but clozapine is more commonly associated with metabolic side effects. Hypersalivation is not a common side effect of clozapine.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus type 1 is prescribed insulin lispro. When should the nurse instruct the client to administer this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that should be administered 5-10 minutes before meals. This timing helps synchronize the peak action of insulin with the rise in blood glucose levels after eating, effectively managing postprandial hyperglycemia. Choice B, administering 15 minutes after meals, is incorrect because rapid-acting insulins like lispro are meant to act quickly to cover the rise in blood glucose levels after meals. Choices C and D are also incorrect as they do not align with the rapid onset of action required to manage postprandial hyperglycemia in patients with diabetes mellitus type 1.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer carbonate. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer carbonate, the nurse should monitor for hypercalcemia as a potential side effect. Sevelamer carbonate can bind to dietary calcium and impair its absorption, potentially leading to elevated calcium levels in the blood. Monitoring calcium levels is crucial to detect and manage hypercalcemia promptly. Hypocalcemia (choice B) is incorrect because sevelamer carbonate's action is more likely to cause elevated calcium levels. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypokalemia (choice D) are related to potassium levels and are not typically associated with sevelamer carbonate use.

5. When planning to administer the antiulcer GI agent sucralfate, what instruction should the nurse provide regarding administration?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sucralfate is most effective when taken on an empty stomach. This allows the medication to form a protective layer over the ulcer, promoting healing and symptom relief. Administering sucralfate with or after meals may reduce its efficacy as it may bind to food instead of coating the ulcer site.

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