Nursing Elites

1. A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Cough
• B. Dizziness
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. Lisinopril is known to cause a persistent dry cough as a side effect. It is essential for the nurse to monitor the client for this adverse reaction as it may lead to discontinuation of the medication. Dizziness, hyperkalemia, and hyponatremia are not typically associated with lisinopril use. Dizziness is more commonly seen with antihypertensives that cause orthostatic hypotension. Hyperkalemia and hyponatremia are not usually linked to lisinopril use.

2. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed sertraline. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?

• A. Nausea
• B. Drowsiness
• C. Insomnia
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea. Sertraline, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), is known to commonly cause gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea. It is recommended for clients to take sertraline with food to help minimize this potential side effect. Choice B, Drowsiness, is less commonly associated with sertraline use. Insomnia, choice C, is not a typical side effect of sertraline; in fact, it may help improve sleep in some individuals. Headache, choice D, is also not a common side effect of sertraline.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed amiodarone. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Pulmonary toxicity
• B. Liver toxicity
• C. Thyroid dysfunction
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amiodarone is known to cause pulmonary toxicity, which can manifest as respiratory symptoms. Monitoring for signs such as cough, dyspnea, or chest pain is essential to detect this serious side effect early and prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while amiodarone can also cause liver toxicity, thyroid dysfunction, and bradycardia, pulmonary toxicity is the most serious side effect that requires immediate attention due to its potential life-threatening consequences.

4. The practical nurse (PN) is obtaining the medical history of a client starting a new prescription for conjugated estrogens PO daily. Which medical condition is not treated by this medication?

• A. Menopausal symptoms
• B. Prostatic cancer
• C. Thromboembolic diseases
• D. Abnormal uterine bleeding

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Conjugated estrogens, such as Premarin, are not used in the treatment of thromboembolic diseases. These medications are contraindicated in conditions predisposing to thromboembolic diseases due to their association with an increased risk of thromboembolism, stroke, pulmonary embolism, and myocardial infarction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because conjugated estrogens are commonly prescribed for managing menopausal symptoms, abnormal uterine bleeding, and certain hormone-responsive cancers, but not for thromboembolic diseases.

5. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed edoxaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Increased risk of bleeding
• B. Decreased risk of bleeding
• C. Increased risk of infection
• D. Decreased risk of infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of bleeding. Edoxaban is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting clot formation, thereby increasing the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as bruising, petechiae, hematuria, or gastrointestinal bleeding, to prevent potential complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because edoxaban does not decrease the risk of bleeding or affect the risk of infection; its primary concern is the potential for bleeding due to its anticoagulant properties.

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