Nursing Elites

1. A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Cough
• B. Dizziness
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. Lisinopril is known to cause a persistent dry cough as a side effect. It is essential for the nurse to monitor the client for this adverse reaction as it may lead to discontinuation of the medication. Dizziness, hyperkalemia, and hyponatremia are not typically associated with lisinopril use. Dizziness is more commonly seen with antihypertensives that cause orthostatic hypotension. Hyperkalemia and hyponatremia are not usually linked to lisinopril use.

2. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Insomnia
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine, the nurse should monitor for weight gain as a potential side effect. Olanzapine is known to cause metabolic changes that can lead to weight gain, making it crucial for the nurse to closely monitor the client's weight during treatment. This side effect is significant as it can impact the client's overall health and well-being, so early detection and intervention are essential to manage it effectively.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed sitagliptin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Pancreatitis
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Sitagliptin, a dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitor used in type 2 diabetes, has been associated with rare cases of pancreatitis. Therefore, the nurse should monitor for signs and symptoms of pancreatitis such as severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. While hypoglycemia is a potential adverse effect of some diabetes medications, it is less common with sitagliptin. Hyperglycemia is the condition being treated and is not an expected adverse effect of sitagliptin.

4. The healthcare provider has administered albuterol as an inhaled medication. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which possible adverse reaction?

• A. Enuresis
• B. Lethargy
• C. Depression
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Albuterol is a bronchodilator in the adrenergic category. Its actions and adverse effects are similar to adrenaline or epinephrine. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for tachycardia, which is a common adverse effect of albuterol due to its stimulant effect on beta-2 receptors. Enuresis, or night bed-wetting, is not an adverse effect associated with albuterol. Additionally, the client should be monitored for anxiety as a potential adverse effect, not lethargy or depression, which are not typically associated with albuterol administration.

5. A client with bipolar disorder is taking lithium. Which client assessment data would indicate a potential adverse effect of lithium therapy?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth and increased thirst
• C. Tremors and polyuria
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client taking lithium, dry mouth and increased thirst are indicators of potential adverse effects. Lithium can lead to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, causing polyuria and subsequent increased thirst due to impaired water reabsorption in the kidneys. Tremors can also be a sign of lithium toxicity. Monitoring and recognizing these symptoms are crucial in managing lithium therapy and preventing further complications.

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