Nursing Elites

1. A client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) has been taking riluzole for two weeks. The nurse notes that the client remains weak with observable muscle atrophy. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Explain that the medication may take time to show improvement in symptoms
• B. Withhold the medication and notify the healthcare provider
• C. Advise the client to undergo liver function tests
• D. Document the assessment findings in the electronic health record

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse's priority is to document the assessment findings in the electronic health record. This action is crucial for maintaining an accurate record of the client's health status and can provide valuable information for the healthcare team. While it is important to monitor the client's response to riluzole, explaining that the medication may take time to show improvement (Choice A) would be more appropriate if the client was expecting immediate results. Withholding the medication and notifying the healthcare provider (Choice B) should not be the initial action without further assessment or guidance. Advising the client to undergo liver function tests (Choice C) is not directly related to the current situation of weakness and muscle atrophy.

2. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed apixaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Increased risk of bleeding
• B. Decreased risk of bleeding
• C. Increased risk of infection
• D. Decreased risk of infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of bleeding. Apixaban is an anticoagulant medication that works by preventing blood clots. While this is beneficial for individuals with a history of deep vein thrombosis, it also increases the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, or blood in the urine or stool. Monitoring for bleeding is crucial to ensure the client's safety and to take appropriate actions if necessary. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because apixaban does not decrease the risk of bleeding, increase the risk of infection, or decrease the risk of infection. The primary concern when administering apixaban is monitoring for potential bleeding complications.

3. Twenty-four hours after starting to take oral penicillin for strep throat, a client calls the nurse to report the onset of a rash on the chest. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Instruct the client to discontinue the penicillin immediately
• B. Instruct the client regarding the use of topical analgesic cream PRN
• C. Question the client about any other related symptoms
• D. Reinforce the need to take all doses of the penicillin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client has developed a rash after starting oral penicillin, which can indicate an allergic reaction. It is crucial for the nurse to instruct the client to discontinue the penicillin immediately. Continuing the medication can potentially lead to severe allergic reactions. Instructing about topical analgesic cream or questioning about other related symptoms may delay appropriate action in case of a severe allergic reaction. Reinforcing the need to complete all doses is not appropriate when an allergic reaction is suspected, as safety takes precedence over completing the antibiotic course.

4. Escitalopram is prescribed for a 16-year-old adolescent client who is clinically depressed. Five days later, the parent tells the practical nurse (PN) that the drug is not working because their child is not feeling any better. Which explanation should the PN provide?

• A. It takes 1 to 4 weeks for antidepressant medications to become effective.
• B. The dosage may need to be increased; I will contact your health care provider.
• C. Depression is difficult to treat with drugs alone. Therapy sessions would enhance their effectiveness.
• D. Based on your child's response to this drug, the health care provider is reviewing your medication regimen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Antidepressant medications typically require 1 to 4 weeks to reach their full therapeutic effect. It is crucial to educate the family that during the initial week of treatment, the child may experience heightened anxiety. Therefore, it is important to wait for the medication to take its full course before assessing its effectiveness.

5. A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed digoxin. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Digoxin, a medication commonly prescribed for heart failure, can lead to bradycardia, characterized by a slow heart rate. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial to detect and manage this potential side effect early on to prevent complications such as arrhythmias or decreased cardiac output. Tachycardia (choice B) is not typically associated with digoxin use. Hypertension (choice C) and hypotension (choice D) are also not common side effects of digoxin.

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