a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed lanthanum carbonate the nurse should monitor for which potential side effect
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Pharmacology HESI 55 Questions 2023

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed lanthanum carbonate. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lanthanum carbonate is prescribed in chronic kidney disease to bind dietary phosphorus in the gastrointestinal tract. This action can lead to decreased phosphorus absorption and potential hypercalcemia due to the increased serum calcium levels. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs and symptoms of hypercalcemia, such as confusion, fatigue, and muscle weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as lanthanum carbonate's mechanism of action does not lead to hypocalcemia, hyperkalemia, or hypokalemia.

2. A client is prescribed ondansetron for nausea and vomiting. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Constipation. Ondansetron is known to cause constipation as a potential adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for constipation while on this medication to address any issues promptly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because headache, diarrhea, and increased appetite are not common adverse effects associated with ondansetron.

3. A client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) has been taking riluzole for two weeks. The nurse notes that the client remains weak with observable muscle atrophy. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse's priority is to document the assessment findings in the electronic health record. This action is crucial for maintaining an accurate record of the client's health status and can provide valuable information for the healthcare team. While it is important to monitor the client's response to riluzole, explaining that the medication may take time to show improvement (Choice A) would be more appropriate if the client was expecting immediate results. Withholding the medication and notifying the healthcare provider (Choice B) should not be the initial action without further assessment or guidance. Advising the client to undergo liver function tests (Choice C) is not directly related to the current situation of weakness and muscle atrophy.

4. A client vomits 30 minutes after receiving a dose of hydromorphone on the first postoperative day. What initial intervention is best for the practical nurse (PN) to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's vomiting is likely due to the hydromorphone administration, indicating a need for an antiemetic such as ondansetron to address the nausea. Nasogastric intubation (Choice A) is not necessary at this point as the client is vomiting, not experiencing an obstruction. While reducing the dose of hydromorphone (Choice C) may be considered later, the immediate focus should be managing the client's symptoms. Assessing the client's abdomen and bowel sounds (Choice D) can be important but is not the initial priority when addressing the vomiting post hydromorphone administration.

5. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed bupropion. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because bupropion is associated with weight loss rather than weight gain. It is important for the client to be aware of this potential side effect. Choice B is correct because bupropion may take several weeks to exhibit its full therapeutic effects. Choice C is also accurate as alcohol consumption should be avoided while taking bupropion due to the risk of seizures. Choice D is correct as taking bupropion in the morning with food can help reduce the risk of gastrointestinal side effects.

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