a client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed paroxetine the nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have
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Pharmacology HESI 55 Questions 2023

1. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed paroxetine. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drowsiness. Paroxetine, used for generalized anxiety disorder, can cause drowsiness. Clients should be advised not to drive or operate heavy machinery until they know how the medication affects them. Dry mouth, nausea, and headache are potential side effects of other medications but are not commonly associated with paroxetine. Drowsiness is a common side effect for paroxetine and can impact a client's ability to perform tasks that require alertness.

2. A healthcare professional prepares to administer a scheduled dose of labetalol by mouth to a client with hypertension. The client's heart rate is 48 beats/min, respirations are 16 breaths/min, and blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's low heart rate of 48 beats/min indicates bradycardia, a potential side effect of labetalol. Administering the dose in this case could further lower the heart rate, potentially causing adverse effects. Therefore, it is crucial to withhold the scheduled dose and notify the healthcare provider for further assessment and guidance. Choice A is incorrect because administering the dose without addressing the bradycardia can exacerbate the condition. Choice B is not relevant in this situation as telemetry monitoring is not the priority. Choice C is also not the priority in this case, as the focus should be on the client's bradycardia and the potential adverse effects of administering labetalol.

3. A client with hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is known to cause peripheral edema as a potential adverse effect due to its vasodilatory properties. This can lead to fluid accumulation in the extremities. Monitoring for peripheral edema in patients taking amlodipine is crucial to identify and manage this side effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because amlodipine is not associated with causing bradycardia, hypertension (as the patient already has hypertension), or increased appetite as adverse effects.

4. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed clozapine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Agranulocytosis. Clozapine is known to potentially cause agranulocytosis, a serious condition characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Monitoring white blood cell counts is crucial to detect this side effect early and prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, weight gain, and hypersalivation are not typically associated with clozapine use. While dry mouth can be a common side effect of some antipsychotic medications, it is not specifically linked to clozapine. Weight gain can occur with certain antipsychotics, but clozapine is more commonly associated with metabolic side effects. Hypersalivation is not a common side effect of clozapine.

5. A client with bipolar disorder is taking lithium. Which client assessment data would indicate a potential adverse effect of lithium therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client taking lithium, dry mouth and increased thirst are indicators of potential adverse effects. Lithium can lead to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, causing polyuria and subsequent increased thirst due to impaired water reabsorption in the kidneys. Tremors can also be a sign of lithium toxicity. Monitoring and recognizing these symptoms are crucial in managing lithium therapy and preventing further complications.

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